Wednesday, February 28, 2018

Junior Assistant and Clerk Recruitment in New Mangalore Port Trust - February 2018

New Mangalore Port Trust
Panambur, Mangalore - 575 010

Applications are invited from eligible candidates for filling up the following posts, in the scales of pay, as indicated against each posts in the New Mangalore Port Trust 

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:
Name of the Subject
Number of Vacancies
Pay Scale
1. Junior Assistant
2. Clerk
Total No. of Posts

Total Vacancies: 18 Posts

Mode of Posting: On Deputation  Absorption Basis

For other details visit Official website

TNPSC Announced for Assistant Engineers Posts Notification - 2018. Last Date to Apply Online: 26.03.2018

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission
Government of Tamil Nadu
Chennai, Tamilnadu, 

Notification No: 05/2018 Dated: 28.02.2018

TNPSC Assistant Engineers Posts Notification - 2018

Total Vacancies: Update Soon

Last Date to Apply Online: 26.03.2018

Vacancy Details

Name of the Posts: Assistant Engineers in following Departments

Name of the Post
Number of Vacancies
1. Assistant Engineer in Civil 70+1*C/F (BC(OBCM) Deaf) Water Resource Department
2. Assistant Engineer in Civil 23 Building, Public Works Department
3. Assistant Engineer in Electrical 42 Public Works Department
4. Assistant Engineer in Civil 160+1*C/F - SC Deaf + 4**ST Highways Department
5. Assistant Engineer 29** (24-SC/SC(A)+ 5-ST) Rural & Panchayat Raj Department

Total Vacancies: 330 Posts

Scale of Pay: Rs.9300 - 34800 + Grade pay Rs.5100/- p.m.

Reservation: Refer the Notification Link

Age Limit: 30 Years as on 01.07.2018 (No Age Limit for SC’s, SC(A)’s, ST’s, MBC’s/DC’s, BC’s, BCM’s and DW’s candidates)

Educational Qualification: 

Post No. 1 & 2 Assistant Engineer(Civil) 

  • B.E degree in Civil Engineering or Civil and Structural Engineering OR
  • A pass in Sections A and B of the Institution Examinations under Civil Engineering branch, subject to the following further conditions namely:-
  • Should furnish evidence of having undergone practical training in surveying for a period of not less than one year. or
  • Should have put in service for a period of not less than one year in Public Works Department as Overseer or Junior Engineer. or
  • Should hold the Upper Subordinate or L.C.E Diploma of the College of Engineering, Guindy or L.C.E. Diploma awarded by the State Board of Technical Education and Training, Chennai
3. Assistant Engineer(Electrical) in PWD

  • A degree in Electrical Engineering or Electronics and Communication Engineering OR
  • A pass in Sections A and B of the Institution Examination with Electrical Engineering as a subject.
4. Assistant Engineer (Civil) in Highways Department: 

  • A degree in Civil Engineering OR
  • A pass in Sections A and B of the Institution Examinations under Civil Engineering Branch. 
5.Assistant Engineer in Rural Development and Panchayat Raj Department:

  • A degree in Civil Engineering OR
  • A pass in Sections A and B of the Institution of Engineers (India) under Civil Engineering Branch, subject to the condition that he/she should furnish evidence of having undergone practical training in surveying for a period of not less than one year
Mode of Selection: Based on Written Exams / Interview

Examination Fee: Rs.350/- (One Time Registration Rs.150/- + Examination Fee Rs.200/-)

No Examination Fee: For SC/SCA/ST candidates. But they are no exemption for the Cost of Examination Fee Rs.200/-

Mode of Payment: On-line Payment

How to apply: Interested and Eligible candidates should apply through Online Only Click Here Online Application 

Important Dates:
  • Date of Notification - 28.02.2018
  • Last Date for Submission of Applications  - 26.03.2018
Date of Examination 

  • Paper – I (Subject) 20.05.2018  (FN 10.00 A.M. to 01.00 P.M)
  • Paper – II (General Studies) 20.05.2018 (AN 02.30 P.M. to 04.30 P.M )
Official Website: or in

Click Here Notification & Syllabus:  

Tuesday, February 27, 2018

How to Pass Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment? Easy 7 Steps Guide

How to Pass Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment: 
Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment Examination will be conducted on 21.05.2017. So Police Aspirants get 4 month for study and physical fitness. Before that Police aspirants  eagerly for study police examination. Questions will be asked for SSLC Standard. So no need to worry questions paper like tough or difficult. 

What are the Steps to pass Police Examination?
  • First Steps: Aspirants fully concentrate in this examination
  • Second Steps: You have study 6th Standard to 10th Standard Tamil books, History and Science Books.
  • Third Steps: You should refer Previous Questions papers
  • Fourth Steps: You should discuss with your friends circle if you have any  doubts.
  • Fifth Steps: You have do regular exercise for your Physical fitness test. (Running, Walking, Yoga)
  • Sixth Steps: You have buy any one guide books for Police Recruitment Examination. 
  • Seventh Steps: Boost your confidence level. Don't loose of your confidence. You should mind Vivekananda Words: "Try and try again then you will reach your goal". You belief yourself. You can do.
All the Best....

Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment Previous Questions

Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment Previous Questions: Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment Previous Questions: TNUSRB will conduct Police Recruitment Examination. TNUSRB were conducted many examination like Police, Inspector, Sub-Inspector Examination. Police Aspirants should download Previous questions in following links.

Tamil Nadu Police Recruitment Previous Questions

UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam Original Question paper 1984

Q1 Rigveda, the oldest of the Vedas, chiefly contains

(a) Collection of hymns to gods

(b) Methods of Vedic yagnas

(c) Early Aryan culture

(d) Origin and works of Hindu gods

Q2 Which one of the following is part of Preamble of the Constitution of India ?

(a) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic …. do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution

(b) We, the members of the Parliament, do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution

(c) We, the people of Constituent Assembly, do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution

(d) None of the above

Q3 Grenada is situated in

(a) Pacific Ocean

(b) Indian Ocean

(c) Caribbean Sea

(d) Mediterranean Sea

Q4 Who decides whether a Bill is a ‘Money Bill’ or not ?

(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(b) President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Vice President

Q5 Write in chronological order

(i) ‘Man’s landing on moon

(ii) Discovery of radio activity

(iii) First nuclear explosion

(iv) Launching of first satellite by India

(a) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

(d) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

Q6 Which of the following is not an alloy?

(a) Bronze

(b) Brass

(c) Steel

(d) Zinc

Q7 Chlorine is

(a) A rare earth element

(b) A halogen

(c) A noble gas

(d) Coinage metal

Q8 The first geostationary satellite launched by India is

(a) Aryabhata

(b) Bhaskara


(d) INSAT 1B

Q9 Sarkaria Commission has been set up to study

(a) CentreState relations

(b) InterState relations

(c) Financial aid to States

(d) Splitting of LIC

Q10 Being a non-member, who among the following can participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament without having the voting right?

(a) Vice President

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) Comptroller & Auditor General

(d) Attorney General (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q11 The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution contains

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles

(c) A list of 1 8 languages recognised by the Constitution

(d) Number of States and Union Territories

Q12 What type of trade is being undertaken by India with East European countries ?

(a) Rupee trade

(b) Free trade

(c) Barter trade

(d) Bilateral trade

Q13 Sugarcane crop matures in about

(a) 2 months

(b) 4 months

(c) 8 months

(d) 12 months

Q14 Which of the following does not appear in George Orwell’s book “1984”?

(a) ‘Double deal’

(b) ‘Double think’

(c) ‘Big brother’

(d) ‘Thought police’

Q15 Which pair is not correctly matched ?

(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi—U.N. Population Award

(b) Mother Teresa—Magsaysay Award for International Understanding

(c) S. Chandrashekhar—Nobel Prize

(d) Mahadevi Verma—Jnanpith Award

Q16 Micro elements needed to increase soil fertility are

(a) Nitrogen, hydrogen and calcium

(b) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium

(c) Iron, calcium and potassium

(d) Manganese, copper and zinc

Q17 Solution of washing soda in water is

(a) Acidic

(b) Basic

(c) Neutral

(d) Sour

Q18 Which of the following discoveries is/are associated with Einstein ?

(i) Theory of relativity

(ii) Quantum theory

(iii) Radio activity

(iv) Rocket propulsion

(a) (i) & (ii)

(b) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(c) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(d) (i) only

Q19 New high yielding varieties of food crops are different from the conventional in that they need

(a) Less water

(b) Less fertilisers

(c) More water and more fertilisers

(d) Less water and more fertilizers

Q20 Who was the leader of the Depressed Classes in the prelndependence period ?

(a) Ram Manohar Lohia

(b) B. R. Ambedkar

(c) Rajendra Prasad

(d) Jagjivan Ram (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q21 Match the following :

(A) Chief Election Commissioner 1. Elected by members of Rajya Sabha

(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha 2. Appointed by the President

(C) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha 3. Elected by members of Lok Sabha

(a) A—1, B—2, C—3

(b) A—2, B—3, C—1

(c) A—3, B—2, C—1

(d) None of these

Q22 Select the famous agricultural scientist who was awarded Nobel Prize for Peace ?

(a) Norman E. Borlaug

(b) M. S. Swaminathan

(c) N. S. Subba Rao

(d) None of these

Q23 Mandal Commission report pertains to other

(a) Backward Classes

(b) Minorities

(c) Scheduled Castes

(d) Scheduled Tribes

Q24 The Indian Space Research Organisation is situated at

(a) Trivandrum

(b) Bangalore

(c) Ahmedabad

(d) Thumba

Q25 Chips used in integrated circuits in computers are made of

(a) Mica

(b) Manganese

(c) Silicon

(d) Zinc

Q26 Gestation period of a goat is about

(a) 150 days

(b) 200 days

(c) 250 days

(d) 365 days

Q27 Why do you feel chill after having a dip in sea water ?

(a) The difference in temperature between sea water and the atmosphere

(b) Evaporation of water from the body

(c) Deposition of salt on the body

(d) None of these

Q28 The North Atlantic Sea route is regarded as an important international trade route because

(a) It is the oldest sea route

(b) It connects two industrially developed parts of the world

(c) Trade winds will help the shipping

(d) There are lesser number of sea storms in this water way

Q29 Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi is correct in connection with India’s independence ?

(a) He was the happiest man

(b) He was a very disillusioned man

(c) He had full satisfaction about his achievements

(d) He was happy with the formation of Pakistan

Q30 Which of the following is an insecticide ?

(a) TNT

(b) DDT

(c) Salicylic acid

(d) Ammonium phosphate (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q31 India has decided to acquire…. to match Pakistan’s F16

(a) Jaguars

(b) MIG29

(c) Mirage2000

(d) Harpoon

Q32 Which of the following diseases is spread through cows milk?

(a) Diphtheria

(b) Typhoid

(c) Measles

(d) None of these

Q33 A good citizen is one who is

(a) Conscious of social obligations

(b) Not bothered about anything

(c) Educated

(d) Rich in cultural heritage

Q34 Stagflation refers to

(a) Constant rate of inflation

(b) Low inflation with high recession

(c) High inflation with low recession

(d) Stagnation and inflation

Q35 Major difference between ‘Varna’ and ‘Jati’, is that

(a) Jatis are limited whereas Varnas are unlimited

(b) Jatis are only four whereas Varnas are many

(c) Varnas are only four whereas Jatis are many

(d) Jati is decided by birth but not Varna

Q36 India carried out its first underground nuclear explosion at

(a) Thumba

(b) Pokhran

(c) Trombay

(d) Khemkaran

Q37 Ajanta paintings depict

(a) Ramayana

(b) Mahabharata

(c) Jatakas

(d) Panchatantra

Q38 In whose reign Mughal painting art was at its zenith ?

(a) Jahangir

(b) Babur

(c) Shahjehan

(d) Aurangzeb

Q39 Mica is abundantly used in which of the following industries ?

(a) Cement

(b) Electrical

(c) Plastic

(d) Fire resistance bricks

Q40 Arrange the following in descending order of their life spans :

A. Elephant

B. Horse

C. Tiger

D. Wolf

(a) A, B, C, D

(b) A, C, B, D

(c) C, A, B, D

(d) D, A, B, C (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q41 The rural population of India is about ____ percent of the total population

(a) 55

(b) 65

(c) 75

(d) 85

Q42 Who was the Prime Minister’s special envoy to Sri Lanka ?

(a) K. Natwar Singh

(b) R. D. Sathe

(c) G. Parthasarathy

(d) A. Amrithalingam

Q43 The surface of the water in a lake is frozen and its temperature is 15° C. The maximum possible temperature of the water inside the lake in contact with the ice layer will be

(a) 0°C

(b) 4°C

(c) 15°C

(d) Insuf-ficient data to predict

Q44 One of your friends is in hospital and you want to see him. You are safest if he is suffering from

(a) Mumps

(b) TB

(c) Small pox

(d) Typhoid

Q45 A stone is tied to a rope and attached to a wooden bar which rotates at constant angular velocity. Suddenly the bar is stopped. The stone gets encircled around the bar. What happens to the angular velocity of the stone.

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains the same

(d) First increases and then decreases

Q46 Match the following :

A. Lignite (i) Jharia

B. Coal (ii) Hazaribagh

C. Mica (iii) Neyveli

(a) A (iii), B (i), C (ii)

(b) A (i), B (ii), C (iii)

(c) A (iii), B (ii), C (i)

(d) A (i), B (iii), C (ii)

Q47 The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in chronological order:

A. Haryana

B. Sikkim

C. Meghalaya

D. Nagaland

(a) D, A, C, B

(b) A, B, C, D

(c) B, A, C, D

(d) A, B, D, C

Q48 Centre State financial relations are looked after by the

(a) Finance Commission

(b) Sarkaria Commission

(c) Ministry of Finance

(d) Planning Commission

Q49 Ramanujacharya advocated

(a) Dvaita

(b) Advaita

(c) Bhakti cult

(d) Vaishnavism

Q50 PIA Champions Trophy was won by

(a) Australia

(b) Pakistan

(c) India

(d) West Germany(UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q51 Jaundice is caused due to the malfunctioning of

(a) Kidney

(b) Liver

(c) Pancreas

(d) Stomach

Q52 Mixed farming means

(a) Simultaneous cultivation of a number of crops in a single field

(b) Alternate cropping in a field

(c) Growing fruits and vegetables in the same field

(d) None of these

Q53 Which is not a parasite ?

(a) Tick

(b) Housefly

(c) Bed bug

(d) Louse

Q54 Sex of a child is determined by the

(a) Chromosomes of father

(b) Chromosomes of mother

(c) Rh factor of parents

(d) None of these

Q55 Who selects persons for appointment to the Central Civil Services in India ?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Planning Commission

(d) UPSC

Q56 Which of the following sectors mobilises maximum savings?

(a) Corporate sector

(b) Banking sector

(c) Other financial institutions

(d) None of these

Q57 Arrange the following three atmospheric layers starting from the surface of the earth :

A. Stratosphere

B. Ionosphere

C. Troposphere

(a) A, B, C

(b) C, A, B

(c) A, C, B

(d) C, B, A

Q58 Iron ore mines are located in which of the following group of places ?

(a) Bokaro, Balaghat, Hazaribagh

(b) Singhbhum, Monghyr, Singareni

(c) Jharia, Raniganj, Wardha

(d) Singhbhum, Mayurbhani, Keonihar

Q59 Who established four ‘Maths’ in four corners of India ?

(a) Shankaracharya

(b) Bhaskara

(c) Ramanujacharya

(d) None of these

Q60 Which of the following records of Bradman is not yet broken by Gavaskar ?

(a) Total number of runs scored in Test matches

(b) Total number of centuries made in Test matches

(c) Total number of runs per inning

(d) None of these

Q61 The steel industry in India is lagging behind its objectives due to less availability of

(a) Iron ore

(b) Coking coal

(c) Power

(d) Technology

Q62 The most indigenous atomic power plant is situated at

(a) Kota

(b) Trombay

(c) Tarapur

(d) Kalpakkam (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q63 The most appropriate source of energy for cooking and lighting purposes in rural India is

(a) Biogas

(b) Solar energy

(c) Nuclear energy

(d) Tidal energy

Q64 Antyodaya scheme aims at

(a) To uplift the poorest sections of the society

(b) To provide drinking water to Harijans

(c) To implement reservation policy for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(d) To allot land to marginal farmers

Q65 An overwhelming majority raised its voice for Namibia’s early independence in

(a) NAM




Q66 In the 19th century the people who participated in the national movement were mostly

(a) Zamindars

(b) Rich people

(c) Educated middle class

(d) Poor people

Q67 Ruins of Vijayanagar empire can be seen at

(a) Hospet

(b) Hampi

(c) Halebid

(d) Madurni

Q68 Which of the following presents the most significant features of Indus Valley Civilisation ?

(a) Buildings with perfect arches

(b) Use of burnt mud bricks

(c) Use of sun dried mud bricks

(d) None of these

Q69 The tape of the tape recorder is coated with

(a) Cooper sulphate

(b) Mica

(c) Ferromagnetic powder

(d) Zinc oxide

Q70 India is a non aligned country because

(a) It is not attached with a power group

(b) It is aligned to the nonaligned world

(c) It exercises a neutral policy towards power blocks

(d) it advocates the interests of the Third World countries (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q71 Economy of Brazil is mostly dependent on

(a) Tea

(b) Coffee

(c) Tobacco

(d) Sugar

Q72 Who prepares topographical maps of India ?

(a) Survey of India

(b) Ministry of Home Affairs

(c) Geological Survey of India

(d) Archaeological Survey of India

Q73 Match the following :

A. HAL (i) Coal

B. BHEL (ii) Aeronautical goods

C. SAIL (iii) Electrical goods

D. CIL (iv) Steel

(a) A — (ii), B — (iii), C — (iv), D — (i)

(b) A — (iii), B — (ii), C — (i), D — (iv)

(c) A — (i), B — (ii), C — (iii), D — (iv)

(d) A — (iv), B — (iii), C — (ii), D — (i)

Q74 Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?

(a) Lal, Bal, Pal—Extremist Group

(b) Annie Besant—Home Rule movement

(c) Gandhi—Dandi March

(d) None of these

Q75 Match the following :

A. Krishnadeva Raya 1. Construction of roads and land reforms

B. Hyder Ali 2. Poems in Telugu

C. Afghans and Turks 3. Mysore Wars

D. Sher Shah 4. Construction of tombs and arches

(a) A—2, B—1, C—3, D—4

(b) A—2, B—3, C—4, D—1

(c) A—1, B—2, C—3, D—4

(d) A—3, B—4, C—2, D—1

Q76 What is the correct order of the following :

A. Fisrt Battle of Panipat

B. Second Battle of Tarain

C. Establishment of East India Company

(a) B, A, C

(b) A, B, C

(c) C, A, B

(d) C, B, A

Q77 Taj Mahal is reported to be in danger because of

(a) Water pollution in Jamuna

(b) Stealing of marble bricks

(c) Decay of marble due to its age factor

(d) Air pollution due to nearby industries

Q78 Silent Valley Project has been abandoned for

(a) Political reasons

(b) Ecological reasons

(c) Noncooperation of Kerala Government

(d) Millions of people who would become homeless

Q79 Panchayati Raj system was adopted to

(a) Make people aware of politics

(b) Decentralise the power of democracy

(c) Educate the peasants

(d) To introduce a form of local selfgovernment at the village, block and district levels

Q80 World Bank loan is given to

(a) Make available the currency of a particular country in case of shortage

(b) Countries for sound projects for development purposes

(c) Improve the social and cultural conditions of a country

(d) None of these

Q81 Which of the following is not true about the paintings of Mughal period ?

(a) Religious scenes were depicted

(b) Scenes of nature were depicted

(c) Court and cultural scenes were depicted to balance communal harmony

(d) Scenes of battles were depicted (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q82 Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?

(a) Nagarjunasagar—Andhra Pradesh

(b) Tungabhadra—Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

(c) Farakka—West Bengal

(d) Kosi—Gujarat

Q83 Cover of a solar cooker is made of glass. Why?

(a) It absorbs sun rays

(b) It reflects sun rays

(c) Sun heat is transmitted through glass without much absorption

(d) None of these

Q84 Match the following :

A. Birju Maharaj (i) Bharatnatyam

B. Sanjukta Panigrahi (ii) Kuchipudi

C. T. Balasaraswathy (iii) Odissi

D. Sonal Man Singh (iv) Kathak

(a) A—(iv),B—(iii), C—(i), D—(ii)

(b) A—(iii), B—(ii), C—(i), D—(iv)

(c) A—(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv)

(d) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iii), D—(iv)

Q85 Swaraj Party was established to

(a) Share power in the Government

(b) Ask the British to leave India

(c) To enter the Councils and wreck the Government from within

(d) Ask the people to fight against the British

Q86 Which of the following places is not associated with the growth of art ?

(a) Mahabalipuram

(b) Amarnath

(c) Ajanta

(d) Ellora

Q87 Main preachings of Buddha were in regard to

(a) Right faith and conduct

(b) Love of God

(c) Practice of rituals

(d) Idol worship

Q88 What is most significant regarding partition of Bengal in 1905?

(a) The English undertook partition without consulting the local population

(b) The English established that they were strong people

(c) Muslims were separated from other people

(d) This paved the way for involvement of people in national movement

Q89 What is the correct chronological order of the following ?

I. First Round Table Conference

II. Gandhi – lrwin Pact

III. Simon Commission

IV. Cripps’ Mission

(a) III, I, II, IV

(b) I, II, III, IV

(c) II, I, III, IV

(d) IV, III, II, I

Q90 ‘Bhakti Cult’ laid emphasis on

(a) Idol worship

(b) Universal brotherhood

(c) Devotion to God

(d) None of these (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q91 Which of the following groups represents the correct order of four types of teeth in human beings ?

(a) Incisors, premolars, molars, canines

(b) Incisors, canines, premolars, molars

(c) Molars, canines, incisors, premolars

(d) Canines, incisors, molars, premolars

Q92 Write the correct chronological order of the following annexations by the Britishers.

I. Oudh

II. Punjab

III. Upper Burma

(a) III, II, I

(b) I, II, III

(c) I, III, II

(d) II, I, III

Q93 What was the objectives of Home Rule Movement ?

(a) Self government at all levels

(b) Eradication of evils like Sati in the Indian community

(c) Participation in Indian National Movement

(d) Boycott of foreign goods

Q94 What does ‘Roaring Forties’ refer to ?

(a) The tract of stormy westerly winds between latitudes 2030° S

(b) Whirl winds caused in Atlantic Ocean

(c) The region between latitudes 40° and 50°S, where the prevailing westerly winds blow over the open oceans with great regularity and strength

(d) None of these

Q95 Who was the person behind conversion of East India Company from a trading company into a regional power ?

(a) Lord Warren Hastings

(b) Lord Clive

(c) Lord Dalhousie

(d) Lord Wellesley

Q96 Which pair is correct?

(a) Sea horse, Sea cucumber, Sea urchin

(b) Star fish, Cuttle fish, Dog

(c) House fly, Dragon fly, Butterfly

(d) Earthworm, Ringworm, Tapeworm

Q97 Democracy exists in India. Government is run by the elected representatives of the people. For proper functioning of this system

(a) One should cast vote in elections

(b) One must be prompt in paying taxes

(c) One must be good to himself and to the society

(d) None of these

Q98 What was the main feature of Maurya dynasty in India ?

(a) Education was widespread

(b) Terrorists were driven out of Sind and Punjab

(c) Removal of land tax for the first time

(d) Decentralisation of administration

Q99 Opposition conclave at Srinagar forwarded the following recommendations :

(A) Government at the Centre should be shared by all parties

(B) Governor should be appointed from a panel forwarded by the State Government concerned

(C) Setting up of InterState Council to finalise disputes between the States

(D) Giving more powers to the States

(E) Articles 356 and 357 should be suitably amended

(F) Resignation of Central Government Out of these only

(a) A and B are true

(b) A, C and D are true

(c) C, D, E and F are true

(d) C and E are true

Q100 Who had founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784 ?

(a) Lord Clive

(b) Lord Warren Hastings

(c) Queen Victoria

(d) William Jones (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q 101 When a brick is dropped in water, bubbles are seen to rise. This is due to

(a) Air in the pores of the brick

(b) Air in water

(c) Water displaced by the brick

(d) None of these

Q102 Triple Antigen does not immunise against

(a) Diphtheria

(b) Tetanus

(c) Typhoid

(d) Whooping cough

Q103 Match the following books and authors :

(A) Seymour Hersh (i) Idols

(B) Salman Rushdie (ii) Shame

(C) Sunil Gavaskar (iii) Price of Power

(a) A (i), B (ii), C (iii)

(b) A (iii), B(ii), C (i)

(c) A (ii), B (iii), C (i)

(d) A (i), B (iii), C (ii)

Q104 Which comet appears after 76 years and likely to appear in 1986?

(a) Halley’s comet

(b) Biela’s comet

(c) Turtle’s comet

(d) None of these

Q105 The major source of revenue for executing FiveYear Plans is

(a) Direct taxes

(b) Indirect taxes

(c) Foreign loans

(d) Interest on investments

Q106 Price rise goes in favour of those who are

(a) Debtors

(b) Pensioners

(c) Businessmen

(d) Government servants

Q107 Write the correct chronological order of the following events:

A. Shifting of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad

B. First Battle of Panipat

C. Second Battle of Tarain

(a) A, B, C

(b) C, A, B

(c) C, B, A

(d) A, C, B

Q108 Indus Valley Civilisation was spread over

(a) Baluchistan, Sind, Punjab and Rajasthan

(b) Sind, Punjab and Kashmir

(c) Afghanistan, Sind, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Kashmir

(d) None of these

Q109 Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?

Five YearPlan Laid main emphasis on

(a) I Agriculture and Rural development

(b) II Expansion of basic and heavy industries

(c) III Selfsufficiency in food and expansion of basic industries like steel

(d)IV Political growth of the country (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q110 Lichens is an association of two types of organisms. They are

(a) Algae and fungi

(b) Algae and virus

(c) Fungi and virus

(d) Virus and bacteria

Q111 Write the following in chronological order

1. Puri—Jagannath temple

2. Meenakshi temple

3. Mahabalipuram temples

4. Qutab Minar

(a) 1, 2, 4, 3

(b) 1, 4, 2, 3

(c) 1, 4, 3, 2

(d) 3, 1, 4, 2

Q112 What is the common feature in insects like ant and cockroach ?

(a) They bite and chew their food

(b) They live in temperate climate conditions

(c) They have cutting and sucking type of mouth parts

(d) They are social insects

Q113 In the Sixth Five Year Plan, indicates allocations were made in descending order for the following sectors

1. Irrigation and flood control

2. Agriculture and allied programmes

3. Village and small industries

4. Power

(a) 4, 2, 1, 3

(b) 3, 4, 1, 3

(c) 2, 4, 1, 3

(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Q114 Which of the following is a perception without stimuli ?

(a) Hallucination

(b) Illusion

(c) Claustrophobia

(d) None of these

Q115 Sir J. C. Bose was a great scientist because he showed the

(a) Sensitivity in plants

(b) Pigments in plants

(c) Growth in plants

(d) Relations between plants and animals

Q116 A person sitting in a bus experiences a jerk, when the bus stops all of a sudden. This is due to

(a) Law of inertia

(b) Newton’s third law of motion

(c) Einstein’s law of relativity

(d) None of these

Q117 Which is correct ?

(a) Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5 years

(b) Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years

(c) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years

(d) Life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefinitely

Q118 The novelty in the Sixth Plan was

(a) Area planning

(b) Sectoral planning

(c) Rural development

(d) New expansion programme

Q119 Assertion (A) : The revolt of 1857 failed.

Reason (R) : It lacked adequate organisation and military power.

(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(b) A is correct but R is incorrect

(c) A is incorrect but R is correct

(d) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q120 Assertion (A) : In 1946 in Bombay the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy rose in open mutiny against the British.

Reason (R) : The Royal Indian Navy joined the INA

(a) A and R both are incorrect

(b) A is correct but R is incorrect

(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q121 Assertion (A) : Eclipses do not occur on all full moon and new moon days. Reason (

Reason (R) : The moon revolves round the earth in an elliptical orbit

(a) A and R both are incorrect

(b) A is correct but R is incorrect

(a) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q122 Assertion (A) : Our agricultural growth rate is small even after proper planning and huge investments.

Reason (R) : The land reform measures are not carried up to the mark

(a) A and R both are incorrect

(b) A is correct but R is incorrect

(a) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q123 Assertion (A) : Though three decades have passed since Independence, still many people are living below poverty line in India.

Reason (R) : Five Year Plans have failed to achieve the targeted growth rate.

(a) A and R both are incorrect

(b) A is correct but R is incorrect

(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q124 Assertion (A) : Lal, Bal and Pal formed extremist group in the Indian National Congress.

Reason (R) : They were revolutionary leaders

(a) A and R both are incorrect

(b) A is correct but R is incorrect

(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Q125 Write the correct order of occurrence of the following activities while completing the construction of a house

1. Plastering

2. Whitewashing

3. Electrification

4. Furnishing

(a) 1324

(b) 3124

(c) 3214

(d) None of these

Q126 A coin is placed on a plain paper. How many coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each of the coins touches its adjacent ones ?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

Q127 If A is the son of Q, Q and Y are sisters, Z is the mother of Y, P is the son of Z, then which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) P is the maternal uncle of A

(b) P and Y are sisters

(c) A and P are cousins

(d) None of the above

Q128 A clock gains 5 minutes in one hour. Therefore, the angle traversed by the minute hand in one minute is

(a) 360°

(b) 390°

(c) 390.5°

(d) None of these

Q129 The following table shows the number of working hours and the number of employees employed in a small scale industry :

No. of working hours No. of employees



The average number of working hours of an employee are

(a) 10.5

(b) 8.5

(c) 9.5

(d) None of these

Q130 A walks from P to Q @ 3 km/hr and from Q to P @ 6 km/hr. What is his average speed ?

(a) 4.5 km/hr

(b) 5 km/hr

(c) 5.5 km/hr

(d) 4 km/hr (UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Exam 1984 Question paper)

Q131 There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on a table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following books touches the surface of the table ?

(a) C

(b) B

(c) A

(d) E

Q132 Three ladies X, Y and Z marry three men A, B and C. X is married to A, Y is not married to an engineer, Z is not married to a doctor, C is not a doctor and A is a lawyer. Then which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) Y is married to C who is an engineer

(b) Z is married to C who is a doctor

(c) X is married to a doctor

(d) None of these

Q133 If the Republic Day in 1980 falls on Saturday, X was born on March 3, 1980 and Y is older to X by four days, then Y’s birthday fell on

(a) Thursday

(b) Friday

(c) Wednesday

(d) None of these

Q134 Find the missing term of the following series : DCXW, HGTS, …… , POLK, TSHG

(a) KLOPs

(b) LKOP

(c) KLPO

(d) LKPO

Q135 What will be the 8th term of the following series ?

(a) 8

(b) 34

(c) 55

(d) 21

Q136 A shop offers 10 percent discount on the purchase of any article. It also offers an additional 12 percent discount if the payment is made in cash. If the original price of the item is Rs. 250, then what is its actual price if paid in cash ?

(a) Rs. 220

(b) Rs. 195

(c) Rs. 198

(d) None of these

Sunday, February 25, 2018

TANCEM (Tamilnadu Cements Corporation Limited) Recruits of Managers Posts. Last Date: 11.03.2018

Tamilnadu Cements Corporation Limited
2nd Floor, LLA buildings,
735, Anna Salai,
Chennai- 600 002.
Phone No:044-28525461, 044-28525471,

Last Date: 11.03.2018

Vacancy Details:

Name of the Posts: 
  1. Manager in Finance - 01 Post
  2. Deputy Manager in Finance - 01 Post
  3. Manager in Marketing- 01 Post
  4. Deputy Manager in Marketing- 03Posts
  5. Assistant Manager in Marketing- 03 Posts
Total Number of Vacancies: 09 

Reservation: GT

Educational Qualification: 

  1. Manager in Finance - CA (Final) / CMA(Final)
  2. Deputy Manager in Finance -  CA (Final) / CMA(Final)
  3. Manager in Marketing - MBA Marketing
  4. Deputy Manager in Marketing - MBA Marketing
  5. Assistant Manager in Marketing - MBA Marketing
How to Apply: Interested and Eligible candidates should download the application form from the TANCEM Official website and filled in application form along with all documents should reach to the concerned address.

Official Website: Click Here

Saturday, February 24, 2018

Government Scholarship for School and College Students - 2018

Government Scholarship for School and Colleges - 2018: Every year Government of Tamil Nadu given Scholarship for All Candidates for Studying School, Colleges (Arts, Engineering and Polytechnic). 

Now Government will give Scholarship for BC Candidates Students who are registered through Online. So who are studying in following course and should register online for getting Scholarship.

Name of the Course
  • 11th Standard
  • 12th Standard
  • Arts College Students
  • ITI
  • Polytechnic
  • Engineering Students
  • Medical Students
Official Website:    

Important Date: Last Date to Apply Online: 31.03.2018.

Employment and Training Department - Trainee Recruitment for Private Sector Company - 2018

Employment and Training Department - Trainee Recruitment for Private Sector Company - 2018: வேலைவாய்ப்பு மற்றும் பயிற்சி துறை  will conduct Trainee Recruitment for Private Jobs through Five Center.

Educational Qualification: ITI / HSC / +2

Place and Date of Interview: Concerned Government ITI in following places.
1. Madurai - 27.02.2018
2. Kadalore - 08.03208
3. Coimbatore - 09.03.2018
4. Chennai Ambature - 10.03.2018
5. Tirunelveli - 17.03.2018

Note: Interested candidates should attend interview mentioned above date.

Salary: Rs.6000/- or Rs.9000/-

Courtesy: Dinamalar

Friday, February 23, 2018

2336 College Lecturer Recruitment March 2018 by TRB

2336 College Lecturer Recruitment to be Announcement will Come on March 2018 by TRB: Higher Education Official News that 2336 Teacher (Assistant Professor) Vacancies Announcement will Come March 2018. These Vacancies announcement will come through TRB (Teacher Recruitmet Boar).
2336 கல்லூரி உதவி பேராசிரியர் காலிப்பணியிடங்கள் வரும் மார்ச் 2018 ல் ஆசிரியர் தேர்வு  வாரியம் மூலம் (TRB) நிரப்பப்பட உள்ளது .

Latest Jobs in Tamil Nadu: Click Here

Courtesy: Dinamalar

Thursday, February 22, 2018

Indian Bank Sportsperson Recruitment - 2018.

Indian Bank
HRM Department, Corporate Office,
Avvai Shanmugham Salai, Chennai - 600014

Recruitment of Sportsperson

Advertisement No. – SPRT /02/2017-18

INDIAN BANK, a leading Public Sector Bank, with headquarters in Chennai invites applications from Indian citizens (Male) for the post of Clerk / Officer in JMG Scale I in the following Sports discipline under Sports Quota

Sl. No
Sport Discipline
1.  Basket Ball 6
2. Cricket 7
3.  Volley Ball 5
4.  Hockey 3

 Total Posts 21

Last Date to Apply: 03.03.2018

For more details please refer Notification: Click Here

TN-Aided Teaching Posts in St. Joseph's College at Trichy. Last DateL 10.03.2018

St. Joseph's College
Tamil Nadu

Teaching Vacancies for Regular Posts - 2018

Last Date to Apply: 10.03.2018

Name of the Posts: Assistant Professor Posts in following Subjects

Name of the Subject
Number of Vacancies
As Per UGC Norms
2. Chemistry
As Per UGC Norms
3. Commerce
As Per UGC Norms
4. Economics
As Per UGC Norms
5. Mathematics
As Per UGC Norms
6. Physics
As Per UGC Norms
7. French
As Per UGC Norms
8. Statistics
As Per UGC Norms
 Total Vacancies
08 Posts
As Per UGC Norms

How to Apply: Interested candidates should download the application form through official website and filled in application form along with related documents should reach to the following address.
The Co-ordinator
Jesuit Higher Education Commission
St.Joseph's College
Tiruchy - 620 002
Phone No. 8526521571

Important Link: 
For Download Application Form:

Direct to Download Application Form:

KVS (Kendriya Vidyalaya School) Teaching Recruitment - 2018. Date of Walk-In-Interview: 27.02.2018

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan
Kendriya Vidyalaya School
DGQA, Chennai - 600 114
Tamil Nadu

Common Walk-In-Interview for all Subject

Date of  Walk-In-Interview: 27.02.2018

Name of the Post: Teaching Posts in following subjects on Different Dates

Name of the Subjects
English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science

Sanskrit, English, Hindi, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, History, Geography Accountancy, Business Studies and Economics.

      Date of Walk-in-Interview: 27.02.2018

{Note: This post on purely contractual basis as mentioned to serve in temporary vacancies }

Educational Qualification: As per KVS Norms

How to attend: Interested candidates should be appear walk-in-interview with their original certificate and with attested copies on above date and candidate should report at the venue by 8.00 am and Registration will be closed 10.00 am.

Place of Posting: Chennai

For more details you may refer Official Website:

For Download Notification:

For Download Application Form:

TNPSC Motor Vehicle Inspector Recruitment - February 2018. Apply Online Soon

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission
Government of Tamil Nadu
Chennai, Tamilnadu, 

Advertisement No.:489        Dated: 14.02.2018

Last Date: 13.03.2018

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: Motor Vehicle Inspector Grade - II

Total Number of Vacancies - 113 Posts

ReservationRefer Notification

Scale of Pay: Rs.35900-113500/-

Age Limit32 years for OC  and No Age limit for Others [i.e. applicants not belonging to SCs, SC(A)s, STs, MBCs/DCs,BCs and BCMs]

Educational Qualification & Experience
i. SSLC and
ii. A Diploma in Automobile Engineering (3 years Course) Or A Diploma in Mechanical Engineering (3 years Course)

(i) Experience of having worked for a period of not less than one year both on vehicles fitted with Petrol Engines and Vehicles fitted with Diesel Engines on a full time basis in an Automobile
workshop which undertakes repairs of Light Motor Vehicles, Heavy Goods Vehicles and Heavy Passenger Motor Vehicles. 
(ii) Must hold a valid driving licence authorising him to drive Motor Cycle, Heavy Goods Vehicles and Heavy Passenger Motor Vehicles. and
(iii) Must have experience in driving Heavy Transport Vehicles for a Period of not less than six months after obtaining the licence referred to above

Examination Fee
  • Rs.300/- (Examination Fee Rs.150 /- + One Time Registration Rs.150/-) 
  • No Examination fee for SC/SCA/ST candidates. But they are no exemption for Cost of One Time Registration Fee Rs.150/-
Mode of Payment: On-line Payment
  • On-line Payment (Net Banking, Credit card/Debit card)
How to applyInterested and Eligible candidates should apply through Online Only 

Important Dates:
  • Date of Notification - 14.02.2018
  • Last Date for Submission of Applications  -13.03.2018
Date of Examination: 10.06.2018

Name of the Centre:
  • Chennai
  • Coimbatore
  • Madurai
Official Website: or in

TNPSC  Previous Questions and Answers: Click Here

Department of Telecommunications Assistant Director and Junior Telecom Officer Recruitment - 2018. Deputation Basis

Government of India
Department of Telecommunications
TNT Complex Building, No.60, Ethiraj Salai
Chennai – 600068. 
Tamil Nadu, India.

Employment Notice No.: Advisor/DoT/TN LSA/Vacancy-AD/JTO/2017-18/25 Dated: 21.02.2018

Last Date to Apply: 05.03.2018

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: 
1. Assistant Director
2. Junior Telecom Officer

Number of Vacancies: 02 Posts 

Mode of Posting: Deputation

For more details like educational qualification, age limit and experience etc. Click Here Official Website:

Teaching Jobs in Shimoga Institute of Medical Sciences - February 2018. Walk-In-Interview on 09.03.2018

Government of Karnataka
Shimoga Institute of Medical Sciences
An Autonomous Institution Sagar Road, Shimoga – 577 201 

No.: SIMS/ADM/WI-21/2017-18/1824 Date: 17-02-2018

Date of walk-in-interview: 09-03-2018 Friday 10.30 am onwards 

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: Teaching Post in Following Subjects

Name of the Post
Name of the Subject
Total Vacancies
Professor TB & Chest, Radiology 02 Posts
Associate Professor TB & Chest, Dermatology, Psyciatry, , Anaesthesia, Radiology 06  Posts
Assistant Professor Pharmacology, Bio Chemistry, Community Medicine, General Medicine, TB & Chest, General Surgery, Ophthamology, OBG, Radiology 17  Posts
Senior Professor TB & Chest,General Medicine, Paediatrics General Surgery, Ophthamology, Anaesthesia, Radiology 21 Posts
Lady Medical Officer  General 01 Post

Total Number of Posts: 47 Posts

Eligibility Criteria & Educational Qualification: 

The candidates shall submit the below mentioned documents in two sets of attested copies along with two recent passport size photographs.
1. MBBS Marks card & PG/Diploma Marks card or any equivalent.
2. Any other certificates of academic excellence.
3. Date of Birth certificate issued by SSLC Board or other competent authorities.
4. Teaching experience certificate obtained from recognized Medical colleges.
5. Caste/Income certificate and any other certificates to claim reservation,relaxation in age and etc., as per the latest Karnataka Government norms. 
6. Registration Certificate from the respective State Medical Council.
7. Candidates working in Government sector/Government Medical Colleges must produce “No Objection Certificate” from Head of the Institution /Competent Authority in which the candidate is presently working. 

How to Apply: 
  • Application can be downloaded from the college website The applicants shall submit application form along with Rs. 1000/- D.D. from nationalized Banks, payable at Shimoga (non refundable) in favor of The Director, Shimoga Institute of Medical Sciences, Shimoga. The desiring candidates may send filled application form and required documents along with D.D. It should be reached through registered post or by hand to the office of Chief Administrative officer, Shimoga Institute of Medical Sciences, Sagar Road, Shimoga-577201 by 05-03-2018 for prior verification of the documents. However spot registration is also permitted. 
  • Selection committee is the final authority in selecting the candidates and altering the number of vacancies.
  • Desiring candidates should attend the Walk-in - Interview with all the original documents with two recent passport size photographs on 09-03-2018 at 9 AM.
  • The candidates are instructed to register their names before 9 AM on 09-03-2018 

Important Link

For Download Detailed Notification:  Click Here

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