Tuesday, April 19, 2016

{ 465 } Revenue Inspector Recruitment Notification - 2016 Uttar Pradesh Subordinate Service Commission. http://upsssc.gov.in/

Uttar Pradesh Subordinate Service Commission,
Uttar Pradesh, India

Last Date: 23.05.2016

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:  Revenue Inspector

Number of Vacancies: 465  Posts

Qualification: SSLC / +2 / ITI / Diploma in Concerned Subjects

Salary: Rs.5200-20200 + Grade Pay Rs.2800/-

Place of Posting: Uttar Pradesh

Mode of Posting: Regular

Age Limit: 18-40 years as on 01.04.2016 and Age Relaxation Available as per Govt. Norms

Mode of Selection: Based on Written Test and Interview 

How to Apply: Interested and Eligible candidates should Apply Online

For more details you may refer Official Website: http://upsssc.gov.in/


{ 1675 } Turner, Tool Maker, Sheet Metal Worker, Painter, Millwright Mechanic Grinder Posts Tata Motors Recruitment - 2016. Apply Online. Last Date: 30.06.2016

Tata Motors Invited for Various Posts like Turner,  Tool Maker, Sheet Metal Worker, Painter, Millwright Mechanic Grinder, Electronic Tester etc.

Last Date: 30.06.2016

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:  

  1. Turner - 150 Posts
  2. Tool Maker - 15 Posts
  3. Sheet Metal Worker - 50 Posts
  4. Painter - 90  Posts
  5. Millwright Mechanic - 10 Posts
  6. Grinder - 10 Posts
  7. Electronic Tester - 20 Posts
  8. Electrician - 40 Posts
  9. Assistant Meterial - 110 Posts
  10. Driver - 100 Posts
  11. Core Finisher - 30 Posts
  12. Welder - 350 Posts
  13. Fitter - 600 Posts
Number of Vacancies - 1675 Posts

Qualification: 10th with ITI

Place of Posting: Maharashtra

Age Limit: 18-33 years as on 12.04.2016

How to Apply: Interested and Eligible candidates should Apply Online through the Official Website of https://www.maharojgar.gov.in/

Commerce - MCQ Important Questions and Answers Part - 3

26. To which one of the following aspects does an established pattern of relationships among the components of an organization refer ?
(A) Organization strategy 
(B) Organization structure
(C) Organization process 
(D) Organization policy
Answer : B

27. Which one of the following is not an element of direction ?
(A) Planning and organizing various resources for doing work
(B) Continuous training activity in which subordinates are instructed to carry out a particular assignment
(C) Motivation of subordinates to try to meet the expectations of manager
(D) Maintaining discipline and rewarding those who perform properly 
Answer: C

28. Some organizations have escalator clause in their labour agreements.
What does this clause provide for ?
(A) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on seniority
(B) Wage increase depending on output per day by the worker
(C) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending upon increase in price index
(D) Automatic increase in wage/salary depending on increase in profits of the firm 
Answer : D

29. What is an organization structure in which each employee reports to both a functional (or division) manager and to a project (or group) manager, known as ?
(A) Strategic business unit 
(B) Departmentalization by customer
(C) Matrix structure 
(D) Departmentalization by territory 
Answer : C

30. According to force-field theory, every behavior is the result of equilibrium between which of the following ?
(A) Push and pull effect 
(B) Strong and weak forces
(C) Positive and negative forces 
(D) Driving and restraining forces 
Answer : D

31. Life insurance is a contract of which one of the following ?
(A) Indemnity 
(B) Guarantee 
(C) Contribution 
(D) Abrogation
Answer : B

32. What is outsourcing of production and concentrating on marketing operations in international business, known as ?
(A) Licensing 
(B) Franchising 
(C) Contract manufacturing 
(D) Joint venture 
Answer : B

33. Which of the following is not a feature of bonds ?
(A) Par value 
(B) Yield to maturity 
(C) Coupon rate 
(D) Maturity 
Answer : B

34. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
When creditors' velocity or creditors' turnover is higher as compared to debtors' velocity, it would
(A) improve liquidity 
(B) reduce liquidity
(C) have no effect on liquidity 
(D) improve financial position 
Answer : C

35. Which one of the following transactions changes the current ratio ?
(A) Purchase of goods for cash 
(B) Plant acquired on account
(C) Sold goods on credit 
(D) Debentures converted into equity capital 
Answer : B

36. Net profit after tax of Rs. 2,00,000 is Rs. 4,00,000. Share capital is Rs. 8,00,000 and revenue reserve is Rs. 2,00,000. What is rate of return on equity ?
(A) 40% 
(B) 50% 
(C) 60% 
(D) 75% 
Answer : A

37. Members of a company may apply to which one among the following for relief under the Companies Act, 1956 in cases of oppression ?
(A) Central Government 
(B) High Court of Judicature
(C) National Company Law Tribunal 
(D) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal 
Answer: C

38. Which among the following is eligible to issue Shelf Prospectus ?
(A) Any company contemplating for public issue of securities
(B) Any public financial institution
(C) Only manufacturing companies
(D) Only foreign companies engaged in trading in India 
Answer : B

39. Which of the following companies do not have the obligation to get its Articles of Association registered along with the Memorandum of Association ?
(A) Public Company limited by shares 
(B) Unlimited companies
(C) Private companies limited by shares 
(D) Companies limited by guarantee 
Answer : A

40. What does management audit imply ?
(A) Complete audit 
(B) Detailed audit
(C) Efficiency audit 
(D) Interim audit 
Answer : C

41. Which of the following is not a part of the usual contents of the current file and audit working papers ?
(A) A copy of accounts on which auditors are reporting 
(B) Audit programme
(C) Minutes of the meetings 
(D) Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association 
Answer : D

42. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) If an asset is used by a company, it should be owned by the company
(B) Verification of liabilities means that the amounts of current and long-term liabilities shown in the balance sheet are correct
(C) Vouching and verification means the same thing 
(D) It is not the duty of an auditor to confirm the physical existence and ownership of an asset
Answer : B

43. What does payout ratio mean ?
(A) Ratio of debtors to creditors
(B) Ratio of profit distributed to profit retained
(C) Ratio of dividends per share and earnings per share
(D) Retained earnings
Answer : C

44. How is ‘Calls in arrear’ shown in the balance sheet on the liability side ?
(A) By deducting the amount from the called up capital
(B) Under the heading ‘Reserves and Surplus’
(C) By deducting the amount from ‘Capital Reserve’
(D) By deducting the amount from the ‘Share Forfeited Account’ 
Answer : A

45. X and Y sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 3 admit Z on 37th share in the new firm. Z takes 27 th from X and 17th from Y.
What is the new ratio among X, Y and Z ?
(A) 7 : 3 : 3 
(B) 4 : 2 : 15
(C) 14 : 6 : 15 
(D) 29 : 11 : 30 
Answer : D

46. What is reduction of paid-up share capital called ?
(A) External reconstruction 
(B) Internal reconstruction
(C) Reorganization 
(D) Redemption of capital 
Answer : B

47. Under which of the following methods of depreciation the amount of an asset is never reduced to zero ?
(A) Straight line method 
(B) Diminishing balance method
(C) Sums of Years Digit method 
(D) Annuity method 
Answer : B

48. An insurance claim of Rs. 300 was accepted in respect of stock (inventory) of Rs. 500, which was destroyed by fire. Rs. 200 not covered by insurance should be debited to which one of the following ?
(A) Stock account 
(B) Trading account
(C) Profit and loss account
(D) Goodwill account 
Answer : C

49. Debtors turnover ratio is 4. 
What is the average collection period ?
(A) 5 months 
(B) 4 months 
(C) 3 months 
(D) 2 months 
Answer : C

50. Depreciation is a process of which one of the following ?
(A) Valuation of assets
(B) Allocation of acquisition cost over the estimated useful life of the asset
(C) Allocation of realizable value over the estimated useful life of the asset
(D) Estimating the market value of the asset on the balance sheet date 
Answer : B

Commerce - MCQ Important Questions and Answers Part - 2

1. What is Director Identification Number (DIN) ?
(A) An identification number which the individual company allots to the intending director 
(B) A number which the Central Government allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company
(C) A number which the SEBI allots to any individual intending to be appointed as director or to any existing director of a company 
(D) A number which the Central Government allots to retired directors so as to build data base 
Answer : B

2. When does a body corporate become capable forthwith of exercising all the functions of a company ?
(A) On finalizing Memorandum of Association
(B) On obtaining certificate of commencement of business
(C) On obtaining certificate of incorporation
(D) On having convened its first Annual General Meeting 
Answer : C

3. For how many years the books of accounts of a company have to be preserved in good order ?
(A) For a period of not less than eight years immediately preceding the current year
(B) For a period of not less than five years immediately preceding the current year
(C) For a period of not less than six years immediately preceding the current years
(D) For a period of not less than four years immediately preceding the current year 
Answer : A

4. Which one of the following is not one of the elements of the 7S McKinsey Model for analyzing and improving organizational effectiveness ?
(A) Strategy 
(B) Structure 
(C) Shared Values 
(D) Standard 
Answer : D

5. A limited company makes a net profit of Rs. 2,00,000 after writing off preliminary expenses amounting to Rs. 20,000 and providing for depreciation on assets amounting to Rs. 40,000 and gain of Rs. 10,000 on sale of a piece of machinery. What are the funds from operation ?
(A) Rs. 2,00,000 
(B) Rs. 2,40,000 
(C) Rs. 2,50,000 
(D) Rs. 2,60,000 
Answer : C

6. Which of the following represents corporate sustainable reporting ?
(A) Publishing annual financial statement only
(B) Publishing annual financial statements and social accounts
(C) Publishing social and environmental accounts annually
(D) Publishing annual financial statements incorporating economic, social and environmental performances 
Answer : D

7. Sometimes an auditor is called upon to review the operations of an enterprise for evaluating their cost-effectiveness. What is this kind of audit generally known as ?
(A) Cost Audit 
(B) Operations Audit 
(C) Tax Audit 
(D) Independent Financial Audit 
Answer : A

8. Which one of the following is not included in the internal check as regards purchases ?
(A) Assessment of requirements 
(B) Placing orders
(C) Despatch of goods 
(D) Recording and making payments 
Answer : C

9. What is the method in which an amount equal to the amount written off as depreciation is invested in outside securities in order to facilitate replacement of an asset at the expiry of its life period, called ?
(A) Annuity Method 
(B) Sinking Fund Method
(C) Replacement Method 
(D) Depletion Method 
Answer : B

10. What is Capital Redemption Reserve Account available for ?
(A) Redemption of redeemable preference shares
(B) Redemption of redeemable debentures
(C) Reorganization of share capital
(D) Issue of fully paid bonus shares 
Answer: D

11. Government grants related to income as per the Accounting Standard (AS)-12 should be—
(A) Presented as a credit in the statement of Profit and Loss
(B) Presented as a deferred income on the asset side of the balance sheet
(C) Presented as a capital grant on the liability side of balance sheet
(D) Presented both in the Profit and Loss statement and in the balance sheet 
Answer: D

12. What is the renewal fees paid for a patent right ?
(A) Capital expenditure 
(B) Revenue expenditure
(C) Deferred revenue expenditure
 (D) Development expenditure 
Answer : B

13. According to the Accounting Standard (AS)-2, the inventory is to be valued at which one of the following ?
(A) Actual cost or sales value, whichever is lower 
(B) Historical cost
(C) Net realizable value 
(D) Historical cost or net realizable value, whichever is lower
Answer : D

14. Which of the following is affected by treatment of an accrued item in accounting ?
(A) Profit and Loss A/c only 
(B) Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c
(C) Balance Sheet only 
(D) Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet 
Answer: D

15. Which one of the following statements about preparation of financial statements of a limited liability company is correct ?
(A) Financial statements should
be prepared according to the cash basis of accounting only
(B) Financial statements should be prepared according to the accrual basis of accounting only
(C) Financial statements should be prepared according to either the cash basis or accrual basis of accounting
(D) Financial statements should be prepared according to both the accrual and cash basis of accounting 
Answer : B

16. Expenses need to be recorded in the period in which the associated revenues are recognised. This is to be ensured as per which one of the following accounting principles ?
(A) Revenue recognition 
(B) Cost benefit
(C) Matching 
(D) Periodicity 
Answer : A

17. How is profit prior to incorporation treated as ?
(A) Revenue reserve 
(B) Secret reserve
(C) Capital reserve 
(D) General reserve 
Answer : C

18. Which one of the following has replaced the Budla system in India ?
(A) Rolling settlement 
(B) Trading in equity derivatives
(C) Depository system 
(D) Online trading 
Answer : A

19. What is the theory of social responsibility that focuses on how companies respond to issues, rather than trying to determine their ultimate social responsibility, called ?
(A) Corporate social performance 
(B) Corporate social responsiveness
(C) Stewardship principle 
(D) Enlightened self-interest
Answer: A

20. What is a systematic evaluation of a company's activities in a given area of social interest such as environmental protection, workplace safety or community
involvement, called ?
(A) Social responsibility 
(B) Social accounting
(C) Social audit 
(D) Social forecasting 
Answer : C

21. What is cross rate ?
(A) A rate of exchange derived from central bank
(B) A rate of exchange between two currencies, other than those that form a market's principal rates
(C) A rate of exchange derived from the quotations for buying currencies
(D) A rate of exchange quoted by a dealer in foreign exchange for selling currencies
Answer : B

22. In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
(A) Loco price 
(B) C.I.F. price  
(C) Franco price 
(D) Landed price 
Answer : C

23. Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
(A) Subrogation 
(B) Utmost good faith 
(C) Contribution 
(D) Average clause 
Answer : A

24. In a marine insurance, when must the insurable interest exist ? 
(A) At the time of making contract
(B) At the time of loss of subject matter
(C) Both at the time of making contract and at the time of loss of subject matter
(D) At the time of termination of the policy 
Answer : B

25. Under which one of the following is the term ‘Dominant Undertaking’ defined ?
(A) MRTP Act 
(B) FEMA 
(C) Companies Act 
(D) SEBI
Answer : C

Commerce - MCQ Important Questions and Answers Part - 1

1. FEMA stands for_____
(A) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(B) Funds Exchange Management Act
(C) Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
(D) Future Exchange Management Act
Answer: Foreign Exchange Management Act

2. What of the following is false about W.T.O.?
(A) It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
(B) It is global in its membership
(C) It has far wider scope than GATT
(D) Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Answer: Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member

3. Convertibility of the rupee implies____
(A) Being able to convert rupees notes into gold
(B) Allowing the value of the rupee to be fixed by marketforces
(C) Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa
(D) Developing an international market for currencies in India
Answer: Freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other major currencies and vice versa

4. _________ has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade.
(A) ISRD 
(B) ADS
(C) WTO
(D) DIMF
Answer: WTO

5. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
(B) Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
(C) Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
(D) None of the above
Answer: Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner

6. Advance Income-tax is shown in the _______
(A) Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
(B) Liability side of the Balance Sheet
(C) Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
(D) Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Answer: Assets side of the Balance Sheet

7. A and B were sharing profits of a business in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C into partnership, who gets 1/3 of A’s share of profit from A, 1/2 of B’s share of profit from B.
The new profit sharing ratio will be–
(A) 3 : 2 : 5 
(B) 2 : 1 : 2
(C) 3 : 2 : 1 
(D) 3 : 2 : 2
Answer: 2 : 1 : 2

8. In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is_____
(A) 5% 
(B) 6%
(C) 10% 
(D) None of the above
Answer: 6%

9. Interim Dividend is shown–
(A) In Profit and Loss Account
(B) In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(C) On Asset side of Balance Sheet
(D) On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Answer: In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

10. Redeemable Preference shares of Rs. 1‚00‚000 are redeemed at a premium of 5%. With this object equity shares of Rs. 40‚000 are issued at par. What amount should be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account ?
(A) Nil 
(B) Rs. 1‚05‚000
(C) Rs. 65‚000 
(D) Rs. 60‚000
Answer: Rs. 60‚000

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below–
List-I
(a) Planning 
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing 
(d) Controlling
List-II
1. Training 2. Forecasting
3. Evaluating 4. Motivating
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: 2 1 4 3

12. Memorandum of Association contains_____
(A) Objective clause 
(B) Name clause
(C) Capital clause 
(D) All of the above
Answer: All of the above

13. ‘Table A’ is an alternative to_____
(A) Prospectus 
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Memorandum of Association 
(D) None of the above
Answer: Articles of Association

14. The ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’ provides protection to the_____
(A) Board of Directors 
(B) Shareholders
(C) Managing Director 
(D) Outsiders
Answer: Outsiders

15. By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
(A) By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
(B) By order of Registrar of Companies
(C) By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
(D) None of the above
Answer: By passing a resolution in Board Meeting

16. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
(A) Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
(B) Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
(C) Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
(D) Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Answer: Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs

17. In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
(A) Loco price (B) C.I.F. price
(C) Franco price (D) Landed price
Answer: Franco price 

18. Consider the following statements______
1. Letter of credit cannot be opened by mail.
2. Contracts of export of goods and services against payment to be secured partly or fully beyond 90 days are treated as deferred payment exports.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: Both 1 and 2

19. Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
(A) Subrogation (B) Utmost good faith
(C) Contribution (D) Average clause
Answer: Subrogation 

20. In a marine insurance, when must the insurable interest exist ?
(A) At the time of making contract
(B) At the time of loss of subject matter
(C) Both at the time of making contract and at the time of loss of subject matter
(D) At the time of termination of the policy
Answer: At the time of loss of subject matter 

Geography - MCQ for All Competitive Exams Part - 4

211. When does it rains in the Central valley of Chile?
(A) In summer
(B) In winter
(C) Throughout the year
(D) Never
Ans : (B)

212. Which is the biggest river of South America? 
(A) Amazon
(B) Peru
(C) Orinico
(D) Parana-Paraguay
Ans : (A)

213. Where does the river Uruguay fall ?
(A) In Pacific ocean 
(B) Titicaca lake
(C) In Carribean sea 
(D) In Atlantic Ocean
Ans : (D)

214. What is Uspallata in South America?
(A) An animal
(B) A lake
(C) A pass
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

215. Which one of the following regions, comes under the equatorial climate? 
(A) Desert of Chile 
(B) Amaion-basin
(C) Plain of Brazil 
(D) Pampass
Ans : (B)

216. Which one of the following countries is famous for the production of nitre?
(A) Chile
(B) Brazil
(C) Peru
(D) Columbia
Ans : (A)

217. Which is the biggest port of Argentina?
(A) Bahia Blanca 
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) La Plato
(D) Mar Del Plato
Ans : (B)

218. The capital of Brazil is—
(A) Bahia Blanca
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) La Plato
(D) Brasilia
Ans : (D)

219. The largest units of coir industry are located at—
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh 
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

220. Which country of the South America is known as 'Granary of Europe' ?
(A) Argentina
(B) Chile
(C) Brazil
(D) Bolivia
Ans : (A)

221. Atacama desert is in—
(A) Australia 
(B) Asia
(C) Africa
(D) South America
Ans : (D)

222. The main region of the South America which produces wheat, is—
(A) Peru
(B) Pampas
(C) Brazil
(D) Columbia
Ans : (B)

223. Which country of the South America, is the biggest producer of Petroleum?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Peru
(C) Chile
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

224. Which one of the following animals is found in South America?
(A) Lama
(B) Kangaroo
(C) Giraffe
(D) Gorilla
Ans : (A)

225. The highest mountain peak in Africa is—
(A) Kenya
(B) Atlas
(C) Nyasa
(D) Kilimanjaro
Ans : (D)

226. Which one of the following countries is not in Africa?
(A) Kenya 
(B) Nigeria 
(C) Bolivia
(D) Ethiopia
Ans : (C)

227. What is the new name of the island of Madagascar ?
(A) Haitti
(B) Malagasy 
(C) Mozambique
(D) Maputo
Ans : (B)

228. Kimberley, a town of South Africa is famous for—
(A) Diamonds
(B) Goldmines
(C) Poisoneous Snakes
(D) Seaport
Ans : (A)

229. In which part of Africa, Sahara desert is situated?
(A) Northern part
(B) Southern part 
(C) Western part
(D) Eastern part
Ans : (A)

230. Africa is a hot continent, because—
(A) There are many volcanoes
(B) There is a great Sahara desert
(C) The greater part of the continent lies within the equatorial type of climate
(D) This is a big producer of spices
Ans : (C)

231. Which part of Africa has the highest population ?
(A) Valley of the river Niger
(B) Valley of the river Nile
(C) Valley of the river Congo
(D) Valley of the river Zambezi
Ans : (B)

232. Which is the largest lake in Africa?
(A) Tanganyika
(B) Nyasa
(C) Edward
(D) Victoria
Ans : (D)

233. What is said 'veld' in Africa?
(A) Savanna forest 
(B) Equatorial forest
(C) Grass lands 
(D) Tropical forest
Ans : (C)

234. The river Zambezi originates from—
(A) Victoria lake
(B) Western Plateau
(C) Tanganyika lake 
(D) Mt. Atlas
Ans : (B)

235. Which one of the following is not in good number at the sea coasts of Africa?
(A) Rivers
(B) Islands
(C) Lakes
(D) Mountains
Ans : (B)

236. The ore for aluminium is—
(A) Hematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Laterite
(D) Pyrolusite
Ans : (B)

237. Which one of the following is the largest lake in Rajasthan?
(A) Anasagar
(B) Pichhola
(C) Sambhar
(D) Udaisagar
Ans : (C)

238. In which part of Africa, Uranium is found?
(A) Sahara
(B) Congo basin
(C) Sudan
(D) Rhodesia
Ans : (B)

239. What is the most typical Australian tree?
(A) Oak
(B) Pine
(C) Eucalyptus
(D) Rubber
Ans : (C)

240. What is the main mineral of Australia?
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Lead
(D) Diamond
Ans : (A)

241. Kalgoorlie and coolgradie mines are in—
(A) Africa
(B) Australia
(C) North America 
(D) Europe
Ans : (B)

242. Murray and Darling rivers fall in—
(A) The gulf of Carpentaria
(B) Pacific ocean
(C) Encounter Bay
(D) Indian ocean
Ans : (C)

243. The capital of Tasmania is—
(A) New castle
(B) Hobart
(C) Launceston
(D) Perth
Ans : (B)

244. What is the chief export from New Zealand?
(A) Wool
(B) Oil
(C) Motor car
(D) Cigarette
Ans : (A)

245. Which part of Australia receives rain throughout the year?
(A) Western part
(B) Eastern part
(C) Southern part 
(D) Northern part
Ans : (D)

246. Which of the following is the chief crop of Australia?
(A) Rice
(B) Maize
(C) Wheat
(D) Potato
Ans : (C)

247. The chief imports of Australia is—
(A) Gold, cotton, iron and rice
(B) Cigarettes, motorcars, cotton clothes, machines and Petroleum
(C) Coal, iron and wool
(D) Meat, wheat, silver and woolen clothes
Ans : (B)

248. The original inhabitants of New Zealand are known as—
(A) Maoris
(B) Bedouins
(C) Magyars
(D) Tartars
Ans : (A)

249. To which side of Australia, Fiji island is situated?
(A) North-west side 
(B) North-east side
(C) In South
(D) In West
Ans : (B)

Geography More Questions123, 4, 5

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