Thursday, October 27, 2016

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Wednesday, October 26, 2016

UGC NET September - 2013 Paper - I

1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16 ?

(A) ~ 80 years

(B) ~ 40 years

(C) ~ 160 years

(D) ~ 320 years

Answer: (A)


2. Telephone is an example of

(A) linear communication

(B) non-linear communication

(C) circular

(D) mechanised

Answer: (A)


3. Means of grapevine communication are

(A) formal

(B) informal

(C) critical

(D) corporate

Answer: (B)


4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by

(A) ILO

(B) ITU

(C) UNDP

(D) UNESCO

Answer: (D)


5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with

(A) reality

(B) falsity

(C) negativity

(D) passivity

Answer: (A)


6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as

(A) non-pervasive treasure

(B) limited judgement

(C) autonomous virtue

(D) cultural capital

Answer: (D)


7. Classroom communication is normally considered as

(A) effective

(B) affective

(C) cognitive

(D) non-selective

Answer: (C)


8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written is

(A) 18

(B) 19

(C) 20

(D) 21

Answer: (C)


9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is

(A) 38

(B) 42

(C) 52

(D) 24

Answer: (D)


10. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to D and C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to B is

(A) C

(B) D

(C) A

(D) F

Answer: (D)


11. The missing term in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is

(A) 238

(B) 432

(C) 542

(D) 320

Answer: (A)


12. In certain city the Taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid ` 156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid ` 204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is

(A) 236

(B) 240

(C) 248

(D) 256

Answer: (B)


13. In certain code HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be

(A) QRUWK

(B) RQWUK

(C) RWQUK

(D) RWUKQ

Answer: (A)


14. Yadav, Arjun, Rajesh and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play Badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays Badminton. Who does play only cricket ?

(A) Yadav

(B) Arjun

(C) Rajesh

(D) Kamal

Answer: (B)


15. A deductive argument can not be valid :

(A) If its premise / premises is/are true and its conclusion is true.

(B) If its premise / premises is /are true and its conclusion is false.

(C) If its premise / premises is/are false and its conclusion is false.

(D) If its premise / premises is / are false and its conclusion is true.

Answer: (B)


16. An analogical argument is strengthened by

(A) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged.

(B) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed.

(C) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (B)


17. If two propositions cannot both be false but may both be true, what is the relation between the two propositions ?

(A) Contrary

(B) Sub-contrary

(C) Sub-alternation

(D) Contradictory

Answer: (B)


18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope. Select the correct code.

(A) Garments, cloth and shirts

(B) Cloth, garments and shirts

(C) Shirts, garments and cloth

(D) Garments, shirts and cloth

Answer: (B)


19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’ ?

(A) All non-pessimists are nonatheists.

(B) All non-atheists are nonpessimists.

(C) All pessimists are atheists.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (A)



In the following table, trends in production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question Nos. 20 to 23 : (Production in peta Joules)



20. In which year primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy ?

(A) 2007–08

(B) 2008–09

(C) 2009–10

(D) 2010–11

Answer: (C)


21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006-07 to 2010-11 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(C) Hydro & nuclear electricity

(D) Total production of energy

Answer: (A)


22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09 ?

(A) Coal & lignite

(B) Crude petroleum

(C) Natural gas

(D) Hydro & nuclear electricity

Answer: (A)


23. In which year, production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together ?

(A) 2006–07

(B) 2007–08

(C) 2008–09

(D) 2009–10

Answer: (C)


24. The Internet ethical protocol is called

(A) net protocol

(B) netiquette

(C) net ethics

(D) net morality

Answer: (B)


25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as

(A) Net ads

(B) Internet commercials

(C) Webmercials

(D) Viral advertisements

Answer: (C)


26. Manuel Castelle was the first to use the term

(A) Internet society

(B) Electronic society

(C) Network society

(D) Telematic society

Answer: (C)


27. GIF stands for

(A) Global Information Format

(B) Graphics Information Format

(C) Graphics Interchange File

(D) Graphics Interchange Format

Answer: (D)


28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System ?

(A) IBM AIX

(B) Linux

(C) Sun Solaris

(D) Firefox

Answer: (D)


29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s) ?

1. Punjabi University, Patiala

2. Osmania University, Hyderabad

3. Kashmir University, Srinagar

4. St. Stephens College, Delhi

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 2 only

(D) 4 only

Answer: (D)


30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council (NAC) ?

1. The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.

2. It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

3. It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.

4. It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)


31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) ?

1. Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats.

2. Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.

3. Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions.

4. Reservation of seats for backward classes.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)


32. In which of the following States the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the State Assembly ?

(A) Meghalaya and Mizoram

(B) Assam and Nagaland

(C) Madhya Pradesh and Assam

(D) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (A)


33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship ?

1. Birth

2. Descent

3. Naturalisation

4. Incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (D)


34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct ?

1. UPSC is a Constitutional body.

2. It serves as an advisory body.

3. It is called upon to advise the Government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.

4. It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (D)


Read the following passage carefully and answer Question Nos. from 35 to 40 :

  I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity. Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity and her compassion for the oppressed which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
  In later years – around late eighties and early nineties – Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate. Though her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes – action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.


35. Which Committee was chaired by Aruna ?

(A) Women’s International Year’s Committee

(B) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year

(C) A Committee of Publicity

(D) Women’s Organizations

Answer: (B)


36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity ?

Choose the answer from codes given below :

(i) Representatives from different political parties.

(ii) Representatives from the leftist parties.

(iii) Representatives from the women’s organizations.

(iv) None of the above.

Codes :

(A) (i), (iii)

(B) (i), (ii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii)

(D) (iv)

Answer: (A)


37. Aruna earned respect because of

(A) she identified with the leftists

(B) she did not associate with any political party

(C) chairing a Steering Committee

(D) she identified with women’s organizations

Answer: (B)


38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right ?

(A) Women Organizations

(B) Leftists

(C) Steering Committee

(D) Some Political Parties

Answer: (B)


39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from

(A) 1985 – 2002

(B) 1998 – 2000

(C) 1981 – 2000

(D) 1989 – 2001

Answer: (C)


40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/ were

(A) Role of media

(B) Economic justice

(C) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)


41. A good teacher must be

(A) resourceful and autocratic

(B) resourceful and participative

(C) resourceful and authoritative

(D) resourceful and dominant

Answer: (B)


42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?

(A) Lecture method

(B) Discussion method

(C) Demonstration method

(D) Question-Answer method

Answer: (C)


43. Successful Communication in classroom teaching is

(A) Circular

(B) Reciprocal

(C) Directional

(D) Influential

Answer: (B)



44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction ?

(A) Placement evaluation

(B) Formative evaluation

(C) Diagnostic evaluation

(D) Summative

Answer: (B)


45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation ?

(A) Macro teaching

(B) Team teaching

(C) Cooperative teaching

(D) Micro teaching

Answer: (D)


46. CLASS stands for

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools

(D) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools

Answer: (C)


47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method ?

(A) Single group experiment

(B) Residual group experiment

(C) Parallel group experiment

(D) Rational group experiment

Answer: (B)


48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test ?

(A) t-test

(B) Sign test

(C) Chi-square test

(D) Run test

Answer: (A)


49. Read the following statements – one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.

Reason (R) : Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.

Find the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (C)


50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps :

(A) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings

(B) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings

(C) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings

(D) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection

Answer: (A)


51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in

(A) Basic Science

(B) Applied Science

(C) Social Science

(D) Literature

Answer: (D)


52. With which one of the following techniques communality is associated ?

(A) Univariate analysis

(B) Factor analysis

(C) Case studies

(D) SWOT analysis

Answer: (B)


53. The variable which impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as

(A) antecedent variable

(B) precedent variable

(C) predictor variable

(D) control variable

Answer: (D)


54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method ?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Cluster Sampling

(D) Quota Sampling

Answer: (D)


55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing

(A) 20,000 MW of wind power

(B) 25,000 MW of wind power

(C) 20,000 MW of solar power

(D) 10,000 MW of solar power

Answer: (C)


56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition ?

(A) Manas

(B) Kanchenjunga

(C) Seshachalam Hills

(D) Greater Nicobar

Answer: (D)


57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world ?

(A) Agriculture

(B) Hydroelectric power generation

(C) Industry

(D) Urbanisation

Answer: (A)


58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below :


Codes :

      a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) iv iii i ii

Answer: (D)



59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5 ?

(A) Mexico

(B) Brazil

(C) China

(D) Korea

Answer: (D)


60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) USA

(D) India

Answer: (C)

UGC NET June - 2013 Paper - I

1. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark
Bee-Honey, Cow-Milk, Teacher-?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom
Answer: (D)

2. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T
(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law
Answer: (B)

3. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions
Answer: (B)

4. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (B)

5. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) Unity in human nature.
(B) Integrity in human nature.
(C) Uniformity in human nature.
(D) Harmony in human nature.
Answer: (C)

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 6 to 11:


6.  Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture?
(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07
(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09
(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09
(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08
Answer: (D)

7. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively:
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent
(B) 30, 38 and 1 perctent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
Answer: (A)

8. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10?
(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture
Answer: (C)

9. Find out the horticultural crops that have recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10.
(A) Fruits
(B)Vegetables
(C) Flower
(D)Total horticulture
Answer: (B)

10. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007-08?
(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent
Answer: (B)

11. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(A) 2006-07
(B) 2007-08
(C) 2008-09
(D) 2009-10
Answer: (A)

12. ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web
(B) word wide web
(C) world wide web
(D) worth while web
Answer: (C)

13. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters
(B) Sectors
(C) Vectors
(D) Heads
Answer: (B)

14. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine languages is called a/an
(A) Compiler
(B) Simulator
(C) Translator
(D) Interpreter
Answer: (D)

15. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes
(B) 1024 Kilobytes
(C) 1024 Terabytes
(D) 1024 Bytes
Answer: (A)

16. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to bits
(B) high level language to machine language
(C) machine language to high level language
(D) words to bits
Answer: (B)

17. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.
(B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.
(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
Answer: (C)

18. The phrase “tragedy of commons” is in the context of
(A) tragic even related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
Answer: (C)

19. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Hazardous waste
(C) Climate change
(D) Nuclear energy
Answer: (C)

20. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Refrigeration and Air-conditioning
(C) Wetlands
(D) Fertilizers
Answer: (A)

21. The smog in cities in Indian mainly consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur
(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Answer: (B)

22. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic eruptions
(D) Droughts and Floods
Answer: (D)

23. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%
(B) 22-25%
(C) 10-12%
(D) < 1%
Answer: (C)

24. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(A) OBC students
(B) SC students
(C) ST students
(D) Women students
Answer: (A)

25. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
Answer: (D)

26. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?
Arguments
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (C)

27. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments:     (I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
                        (II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political                                 opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.
(B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1) A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3) He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4) He can be removed for proven misbehavior or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: (D)

29. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President
(B) The Vice-President
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Cabinet Ministers
Answer: (C)

30. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) Making the students attentive
(C) Writing the important and notable points
(D) Highlighting the teacher himself.
Answer: (C)

31. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) Self study
(B) Face-to-face learning
(C) e-learning
(D) Blended learning
Answer: (D)

32. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.
(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.
(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
Answer: (D)

33. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(A) Chain learning
(B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning
(D) Conditioned-reflex learning
Answer: (D)

34. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.
(B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.
(D) is very close to higher authorities.
Answer: (B)

35. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.
(B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.
(D) not speak too much in the class.
Answer: (C)

36. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
Answer: (C)

37. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favor even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Answer: (B)

38. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(A) Simple Random Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Quota Sampling
(D) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (C)

39. Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Answer: (D)

40. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Answer: (D)

41. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (42 to 47):
       The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 meters. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, market, serials and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. in contemporary texis, it is generally called simply the illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
       Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Buhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that the provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
       Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.

42. Marble stone used for the construction of te Taj Mahal was brought from te ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur
(B) Makrana
(C) Amber
(D) Jaipur
Answer: (B)

43. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan        
(B) Tourists
(C) Public
(D) European travellers
Answer: (D)

44. Point out the true statement from the following:
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quatered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the “Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal”.
Answer: (C)

45. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad
(B) Mumtaz Mahal
(C) Zainabad
(D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
Answer: (D)

46. The Construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632-1636 A.D.
(B) 1630-1643 A.D.
(C) 1632-1643 A.D.
(D) 1636-1643 A.D.
Answer: (C)

47. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman
(B) Sale Deed
(C) Sale-Purchase Deed
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

48. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect.
Answer: (C)

49. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant
(B) James Augustus Hicky
(C) Lord Cripson
(D) A.O. Hume
Answer: (B)

50. Press censorsip in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi
(B) Narasimha Rao
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Deve Gowda
Answer: (C)

51. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment
(B) Interactive communication
(C) Developmental communication
(D) Communication
Answer: (B)

52. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Enlightenment
Answer: (B)

53. __________________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.
(A) Sympathy
(B) Empathy
(C) Apathy
(D) Antipathy
Answer: (B)

54. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A) UJHFS
(B) UHJSE
(C) JHUSF
(D) HUJSE
Answer: (A)

55. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 210
Answer: (B)

56. The missing number in the series
40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110
(B) 270
(C) 105
(D) 210
Answer: (B)

57. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 33
(D) 36
Answer: (C)

58. The mean of four numbers a,b,c,d is 100. IF c = 70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(A) 30
(B) 85/2
(C) 170/3
(D) 110
Answer: (D)

59. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increased by
(A) 20%
(B) 30%
(C) 40%
(D) 50%
Answer: (D)

60. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below:
(i) All men are honest
(ii) No men are honest
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.

Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Answer: (B)

UGC NET December - 2012 Paper - I

1. The English word ‘Communication’ is derived from the words
(A) Communis and Communicare
(B) Communist and Commune
(C) Communism and Communalism
(D) Communion and Common sense
Answer: (A)

2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses is known as
(A) Mass line communication
(B) Group communication
(C) Participatory communication
(D) Dialogue communication
Answer: (A)

3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(A) Transpersonal communication
(B) Intrapersonal communication
(C) Interpersonal communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (A)

4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Indian Express
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Deccan Herald
Answer: (A)

5. The pioneer of the silent feature film in India was
(A) K.A. Abbas
(B) Satyajit Ray
(C) B.R. Chopra
(D) Dada Sahib Phalke
Answer: (D)

6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment
(B) Edutainment
(C) Entertainment
(D) Power equation
Answer: (B)

7. The missing number in the series :
0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(A) 240
(B) 220
(C) 280
(D) 210
Answer: (D)

8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(A) 80
(B) 100
(C) 90
(D) 110
Answer: (B)

9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5 and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(A) 4
(B) 15/2
(C) 15/4
(D) 6
Answer: (C)

10. If MOHAN is represented by the code KMFYL, then COUNT will be represented by
(A) AMSLR
(B) MSLAR
(C) MASRL
(D) SAMLR
Answer: (A)

11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and B is 50. 5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5/3. The present age of A and B are
(A) 30, 20
(B) 35, 15
(C) 38, 12
(D) 40, 10
Answer: (A)

12. Let a means minus (–), b means multiplied by (X), C means divided by (/) and D means plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 a 29 C 10 b 2 is
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: (D)

13. Consider the Assertion–I and Assertion–II and select the right code given below:

Assertion–I: Even Bank-lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. But thieves cannot go to heaven. So you should keep your wealth in heaven.

Assertion–II: The difference of skin-colour of beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin-colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.

Codes :
(A) Both the assertions-I and II are forms of argument.
(B) The assertion-I is an argument but the assertion-II is not.
(C) The assertion-II is an argument but the assertion-I is not.
(D) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.
Answer: (B)

14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition ‘some men are not honest’ is contradicted?
(A) All men are honest.
(B) Some men are honest.
(C) No men are honest.
(D) All of the above.
Answer: (A)

15. A stipulative definition is
(A) always true
(B) always false
(C) sometimes true sometimes false
(D) neither true nor false
Answer: (D)

16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner – Examinee, Pleader – Client, Preceptor –?
(A) Customer
(B) Path-finder
(C) Perceiver
(D) Disciple
Answer: (D)

17. If the statement ‘most of the students are obedient’ is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.

Codes :
(A) I & II
(B) II & III
(C) III & IV
(D) II & IV
Answer: (C)

18. Choose the right code:
A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that which is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise/premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise/premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise/combination of premises is true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)


On the basis of the data given in the following table, give answers to questions from 19 to 24 :
Government Expenditures on Social Services
(As percent of total expenditure)

19. How many activities in the social services are there where the expenditure has been less than 5 percent of the total expenditures incurred on the social services in 2008-09?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Five
(D) All the above
Answer: (D)

20. In which year, the expenditures on the social services have increased at the highest rate?
(A) 2007-08
(B) 2008-09
(C) 2009-10
(D) 2010-11
Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following activities remains almost stagnant in terms of share of expenditures?
(A) North-eastern areas
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Information & broadcasting
(D) Social welfare and nutrition
Answer: (C)

22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?
(A) Information & broadcasting
(B) Welfare to SC/ST and OBC
(C) Labour and employment
(D) Social welfare & nutrition
Answer: (D)

23. Which of the following items of social services has registered the highest rate of increase in expenditures during 2007-08 to 2010-11?
(A) Education, sports & youth affairs
(B) Welfare to SC/ST & OBC
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Overall social services
Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following items has registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 2007-08 to 2009-10?
(A) Labour and employment
(B) Health & family welfare
(C) Social welfare & nutrition
(D) Education, sports & youth affairs
Answer: (A)

25. ALU stands for
(A) American Logic Unit
(B) Alternate Local Unit
(C) Alternating Logic Unit
(D) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Answer: (D)

26. A Personal Computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(A) Microprocessor
(B) System Board
(C) Daughter Board
(D) Mother Board
Answer: (D)

27. Computer Virus is a
(A) Hardware
(B) Bacteria
(C) Software
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)

28. Which one of the following is correct?








Answer: (D)

29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is _______.
(A) .pdf
(B) .doc
(C) .docx
(D) .txt
Answer: (C)

30. _______ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer.
(A) TCP
(B) FTP
(C) SMTP
(D) POP
Answer: (D)

31. Which of the following is a source of methane?
(A) Wetlands
(B) Foam Industry
(C) Thermal Power Plants
(D) Cement Industry
Answer: (A)

32. ‘Minamata disaster’ in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(A) Lead
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium
(D) Zinc
Answer: (B)

33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(A) concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(B) number of species
(C) size of living organisms
(D) biomass
Answer: (A)

34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(A) Climate change
(B) Ozone depletion
(C) Hazardous waste
(D) Biodiversity
Answer: (D)

35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(A) Solar energy
(B) Nuclear energy
(C) Hydropower
(D) Wind energy
Answer: (C)

36. In case of earthquakes, an increase of magnitude 1 on Richter Scale implies
(A) a ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(B) a ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves.
(C) two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves.
(D) two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves.
Answer: (A)

37. Which of the following is not a measure of Human Development Index?
(A) Literacy Rate
(B) Gross Enrolment
(C) Sex Ratio
(D) Life Expectancy
Answer: (C)

38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(A) the U.K.
(B) the U.S.A.
(C) Australia
(D) Canada
Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all the Courts of the country.
3. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
4. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 3 only
Answer: (A)

40. Which of the following prefix President Pranab Mukherjee desires to be discontinued while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings ?
1. His Excellency
2. Mahamahim
3. Hon’ble
4. Shri/Smt.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C)

41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of States.
3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Answer: (D)

42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I                                                            List – II

(a) Poverty Reduction Programme                (i) Mid-day Meals
(b) Human Development Scheme                 (ii) Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
(c) Social Assistance Scheme                       (iii) National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
(d) Minimum Need Scheme                         (iv) MNREGA

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (A)

43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(A) ability to learn only
(B) requisite level of motivation only
(C) opportunities to learn only
(D) desired level of ability and motivation
Answer: (D)

44. Classroom communication must be
(A) Teacher centric
(B) Student centric
(C) General centric
(D) Textbook centric
Answer: (B)

45. The best method of teaching is to
(A) impart information
(B) ask students to read books
(C) suggest good reference material
(D) initiate a discussion and participate in it
Answer: (D)

46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(A) Argument
(B) Information
(C) Ideas
(D) Controversy
Answer: (C)

47. “Spare the rod and spoil the child”, gives the message that
(A) punishment in the class should be banned.
(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable.
(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished.
(D) children should be beaten with rods.
Answer: (C)

48. The type of communication that the teacher has in the classroom, is termed as
(A) Interpersonal
(B) Mass communication
(C) Group communication
(D) Face-to-face communication
Answer: (C)


49. Which one of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(A) Impact factor
(B) h-index
(C) g-index
(D) i10-index
Answer: (A)

50. Good ‘research ethics’ means
(A) Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research.
(B) Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only.
(C) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal.
(D) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal.
Answer: (B)

51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
(A) Convenience sampling
(B) Quota sampling
(C) Judgement sampling
(D) Stratified sampling
Answer: (D)

52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?
(A) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(B) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(C) Sharma.V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
(D) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi : Tata McGraw Hill
Answer: (A)

53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence :
1. Identification of research problem
2. Listing of research objectives
3. Collection of data
4. Methodology
5. Data analysis
6. Results and discussion
(A) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(B) 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
(C) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(D) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 5 – 6
Answer: (B)

54. Identify the incorrect statement:
(A) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(B) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(C) Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(D) Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Answer: (D)

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (55 to 60):

The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos etc. But what is the reality? Given the unprecedental increase in urban population over the last 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder really is how well the world has coped, and not how badly.

                In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the last decade of 20th century, though in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites, have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (1990-2000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.

55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Neutral
(D) Unspecified
Answer: (B)

56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 A.D. was close to
(A) 30 million
(B) 40 million
(C) 50 million
(D) 60 million
Answer: (A)

57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(A) How well the situation has been managed.
(B) How badly the situation has gone out of control.
(C) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization.
(D) How fast the environment has degraded.
Answer: (A)

58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(A) Tempo of urbanization
(B) Provision of basic services
(C) Access to social amenities
(D) All the above
Answer: (A)

59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(A) Extension of Knowledge
(B) Generation of Environmental Consciousness
(C) Analytical Reasoning
(D) Descriptive Statement
Answer: (C)

60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(A) The hazards of the urban life
(B) The sufferings of the urban life
(C) The awareness of human progress
(D) the limits to growth
Answer: (D)

Indian Institute of Technology Madras Teaching Posts Recruitment - 2016. Last Date: 11.11.2016

Indian Institute of Technology Madras
Chennai – 600 036
Tamil Nadu

Last Date: 11.11.2016

Advt. No.: IITM/R/4/2016 Dated 21.10.2016

Vacancy Details

Name of the Posts: Teaching Posts in following Categories
1. Assistant Professor
2. Professor

Educational Qualification and Age limit: Refer IITM Website

For more details, like age limit, educational qualification, selection process, how to apply & other information click on the link given below:

1. Official Website Link: Click Here



Sunday, October 23, 2016

Parliament of India Recruitment - 2016. Lok Sabha Secretariat: 35 Vacancies.

Parliament of India
Joint Recruitment Cell
New Delhi, India

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post: Executive/Legislative/Committee/Protocol Assistant

Number of Vacancies: 35 Posts

Reservation: SC-8, ST-1, OBC-13, UR-13

Age Limit: 27 years,

Age Relaxation: As per Govt. of India Rules.

Scale of Pay: Rs. 9300-34800 (PB-2) + Grade Pay : Rs. 4600/- (prerevised)

Qualification: Any Degree

How to Apply: Interested candidates should apply online only.

Exam Centre: Chennai, Kolkata, Mumbai

For Download Notification: Click Here

Saturday, October 22, 2016

General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF) Recruitment - 2016. 2176 Vacancies.

General Reserve Engineer Force (GREF)
Government of India
Ministry of Defence
Border Roads Wing
Border Roads Organisation.

Advertisement No.01/2016

GREF Recruitment - 2016

Last Date: 45 Days from the Date of Advertisement

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:
  1. Draughtsman - 52
  2. Supervisor Stores - 6
  3. Supervisor Nursing - 6
  4. Hindi Typist  - 8
  5. Vehicle Mechanic  - 133
  6. Welder - 13
  7. Multi Skilled Worker ( Pioneer) - 203
  8. Multi Skilled Worker (Mess Waiter) -  16
  9. Multi Skilled Worker (Nursing Assistant) - 65
  10. Multi Skilled Worker (Safaiwala) - 119
  11. Multi Skilled Worker (Driver Engine Static) - 384
  12. Multi Skilled Worker (Mason) - 154
  13. Multi Skilled Worker (Cook) - 330
  14. Driver Mechanical Transport (Ordinary Grade) - 475
  15. Driver Road Roller (Ordinary Grade) - 73
  16. Operator Excavating Machinery (Ordinary Grade) - 139
Total Vacancies: 2176

Educational Qualification: As per Govt. Norms Refer Notification

Age Limit: Reservation and age relaxation as per Govt. of India Rules.

How to Apply: Interested and Eligible candidates should download the application form and filled in application form along with related documents should reach to the following address through Registered post alongwith acknowledgment.
Commandant, 
GREF CENTRE, 
Dighi Camp, 
Pune-411 015
Maharashtra.

For more details like Qualification, Experience and Age limit Please refer Official Website: http://bro.gov.in/

UPSC Public Prosecutors and Others Recruitment - 2016. Last Date : 10.11.2016

Union Public Service Commission
Government of India
New Delhi.


UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Announced 74 Various job in Different Discipline. Interested and Eligible Candidates Should apply through online before the last date of 11.11.2016


Advertisement No.19/2016

Last Date : 10.11.2016

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:
  1. Additional Directer General - 01 Post
  2. Senior Scientific Officer in Electronics - 03 Posts
  3. Senior Scientific Officer in Metallurgy - 01 Post
  4. Scientists for Documents - 05 Posts
  5. Junior Scientific Officer in Explosives - 01 Post
  6. Public Prosecutors - 47 Posts
  7. Assistant Public Prosecutors - 15 Posts
  8. Commercial Tax Officers - 01 Post
Total Vacancies - 74 Posts

How to Apply: Interested candidates should Apply through online only before the last Date of 10.11.2016.

For more details Click Here Official Websites: www.upsconline.nic.in

NIFTEM Non-Teaching Recruitment (Deputy Librarian/Assistant Librarian Posts) - 2016. Last Date: 07.11.2016

National Institute of Food Technology Entrepreneurship and Management
Plot No.97, Sector-56, HSIIDC Estate, Kundli-131 028
Distt-Seonepat
Haryana, India

Non-Teaching Post Recruitment - 2016

Last Date: 07.11.2016

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:
  1. Deputy Librarian - 01 (UR) Post
  2. Assistant Librarian - 01 (UR) Post
  3. Assistant Registrar - 01 (SC) Post
  4. Quality Assurance - 01 (UR) Post
  5. Senior Analyst - 02 (UR) Posts
  6. Junior Analyst - 02 (UR) Posts
  7. Lab Incharge - 02 (UR) Posts
  8. Lab Technician - 05 (UR-3, OBC-1, SC-1) Posts
  9. Multi Tasking Staff - 02 Posts
Educational Qualification: As per UGC Norms

Age Limit: Reservation and age relaxation as per Govt. of India Rules.

How to Apply: Interested and Eligible candidates should download the application form and filled in application form along with related documents should reach to the following address.
The Registrar,
NIFTEM Campus, 
Kundli-131 028
Distt-Seonepat
Haryana, India

For more details like Qualification, Experience and Age limit Please refer Official Website: www.niftem.ac.in

For Download Notification and Application Form: Click Here

Friday, October 21, 2016

Daily GK Update: Current Affairs in English Medium. Date: 21.10.2016

TNPSC Master publishes relevant fact based Current Affairs almost daily basis. In this current affairs helps you and useful for General Awareness part of TNPSC, UPSC, SSC IBPS Banking and other State Public Service Commission examination. TNPSC Master is a compilation of recent current events. In This section is updated almost daily events, Innovation, Achievement, Awards and New Appointments etc. 

Latest Current Affairs Contains in following Titles:
  • Class 10 board exams likely to make a comeback from 2018
  • TN power plants to get better coal from Maharashtra
  • Five labs in IITs to be brought on a par with best in the world
  • India's 2nd costliest puja at Srikalahasti temple
  • Scientists turn CO2 back into fuel
  • Times Network unveils `Make In India' awards
  • WTO members stay committed to development
  • Fortified rice to be introduced in mid-day meals in Karnataka: Minister
Class 10 board exams likely to make a comeback from 2018
  • The government is set to announce the reintroduction of the Class 10 board exam for students affiliated with the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), the country's largest national school testconducting body . The announcement is likely to be made by HRD minister Prakash Javadekar on October 25 and will be his first major decision after taking over as the ministry in early July . The Class 10 boards are likely to be back from 2018. Javadekar will also announce a new `no-detention' policy wherein students will be automatically promoted till Class 5. States will then devise their options till Class 8 but will need to provide an opportunity for a “re-test“ for students who fail. The CBSE Class 10 board examination was scrapped in 2010 and replaced with the current continuous and comprehensive evaluation that provides for tests and grading through the year as a means to reduce pressure on students.
TN power plants to get better coal from Maharashtra
  • The state's power generation corporation is in the process of shifting to using coal from the western mines in Maharashtra, which is of better quality and cheaper to transport, instead of from Odisha.Talks with the Centre are on to bring coal from mines near Nagpur, said a senior official from Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Company (Tangedco). “The Centre has assured us supply from Nagpur area and talks are on.We are hopeful of getting coal from the western mines before the end of this financial year,“ he said.
Five labs in IITs to be brought on a par with best in the world
  • A meeting of IIT directors and experts on Project Vishwajeet that seeks to make IITs world class institutes decided to modernise five laboratories each in seven IITs. They will be made on a par with the best in the world. IIT directors presented detailed requirements to turn the dream of Vishwajeet into a reality . Five laboratories each at IIT Kharagpur, Bombay , Madras, Delhi, Kanpur, Guwahati and Roorkee will get funding from proposed Higher Education Finance Agency , directly from government and industry .“Now it is for the ministry to decide how it can be implemented,“ one official said.
India's 2nd costliest puja at Srikalahasti Temple
  • For those finding it difficult to get married or couples who are issueless, a new “heavenly offering“ is on its way . Soon, the Srikalahasti temple in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh will perform the Naga Pratishta Puja, which at `15,000, will be the costliest in the country after the `Vastram' Puja that is performed at Tirumala. Located about 40km from Tirumala, the 700-year-old Shiva temple is known nationwide for performing the Rahu-Ketu Puja and Kalasarpa Dosha (when all planets are hemmed in by Rahu and Ketu on either side in the birth chart).
Scientists turn CO2 back into fuel
  • Scientists have accidentally discovered a way to rever se the combustion process, turning carbon dioxide (CO2) back into a fuel.Researchers at the Oak Ridge National Laboratory in the US used complex nanotechnology techniques to turn the dissolved gas into ethanol. Because the materials used are relatively cheap, they believe the process could be used in industrial processes, for example to store excess electricity generated by wind and solar power. The researchers had hoped the technique would turn carbon dioxide into methanol, but ethanol came out instead.
Times Network unveils `Make In India' awards
  • Times Network, part of India's largest media conglomerate Times Group, has launched the Make In India Summit and Awards, which are aimed at laying out key imperatives and the framework for turning the vision of `Make In India' into a reality. The launch was held on October 18 in Delhi, and was attended by commerce minister Nirmala Sitharaman, textile minister Smriti Irani and steel minister Chaudhary Birender Singh. In her keynote address, Sitharaman said, “Make In India, Make For India, all aim to make India a global ma nufacturing power. With momentum on our side, we look to contribute at least 25% of India's GDP through the manufacturing sector, which currently lies between 13-14%.“.
WTO members stay committed to development
  • The World Trade Organization (WTO) head, Roberto Azevêdo, has said no member country has sought long-standing issues, including food security-related, to be taken off the negotiating table of the Doha Round. “They are all too important to be cast aside,” Mr. Azevêdo told The Hindu in an e-mail interview ahead of a key WTO meeting in Oslo on October 21-22. Agriculture, for example, is a key priority for developing countries. Progress on these issues will be difficult but I think that with fresh thinking, open-mindedness, and a renewed spirit of flexibility, anything is possible.
Fortified rice to be introduced in mid-day meals in Karnataka: Minister
  • It will be a power-packed lunch for close to five lakh students in 2,600 government schools in three districts in Karnataka. They will be given fortified rice under the mid-day meal scheme from this month. The State government has entered into an agreement with The Akshaya Patra Foundation to roll out what is being termed one of the biggest ever programmes in terms of reach in staple food fortification.To begin with, schools in Dharwad, Ballari and Bengaluru will be covered.
Source: The Times of India / The Hindu
Courtesy: The Times of India / The Hindu

Tamil Nadu Postal Circle Department Recruitment - 2016. Postman and Mail Guard Vacancies - 310

India Postal Department,
Tamil Nadu Postal Circle
Chennai - 600 002, Tamil Nadu

Advt. No.  REP/5-1/DR/16               Date: 21.10.2016

          Tamilnadu Circle is one among the 22 Postal Circles in the country. The Circle manages the day-to-day functioning of various Head Post Offices, Sub-Post Offices and Branch Post Offices through their Regional and Divisional level arrangements. Tamilnadu Circle is divided into 4 regions. Under each region there are Postal/RMS Divisions headed by divisional Superintendents. Each region is headed by a Postmaster General. Tamilnadu Circle is headed by the Chief Postmaster General who is the overall in-charge of the circle to ensure smooth operation and maintenance of postal services.

Last Date: 15.11.2016

Vacancy Details

Name of the Post:
  1. Postman - 304 Posts (UR-191, SC-64, ST-16, OBC-33)
  2. Mail Guard - 06 Posts (UR-2, SC-2, ST-1, OBC-1)
Number of Vacancies: 310

Pay Scale: Rs.21700-69100/-

Age Limit: 18-27  as on 15.11.2016

Educational Qualification: 
  1. Postman - 304 Posts  - SSLC / 10th Standard
  2. Mail Guard - 06 Posts - SSLC / 10th Standard
How to Apply: Interested and eligible candidates should apply online only through Tamil Nadu Postal Circle Offical Website.

For more details like educational qualification, Age limit and Online Application form Detail etc. you may visit University Official Website: Click Here

For Download Notification and Application Form: Click H ere

Important Date:
  • Online Application Open From: 22.10.2016
  • Last Date for Online Application Submission: 15.11.2016

Wednesday, October 19, 2016

Important GK Objective Questions with Answers on Indus Valley Civilization Section-6

51. Which town of the Indus Valley Civilization literally means "Mound of the dead?"
(A) Mohanjodaro
(B) Lothal
(C) Banwali
(D) Both B & C
Answer: (A)

52. With which countries Indus people had trade relations?
(A) Sumeria
(B) Babylon
(C) Egypt
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)

53. In Harappa how many granaries have been found?
(A) 4 granaries
(B) 3 granaries
(C) 6 granaries
(D) 7 granaries
Answer: (C)

54. By whom and when Harappa was excavated?
(A) Ram Sahni, in 1925
(B) Rai Bahadur Daya Ram Sahni, in 1921
(C) Raja Bahadur Singh, in 1921
(D) none of the above
Answer: (B)


55. Which of the following presents the most significant feature of Indus Valley Civilization ?
(A) Burnt brick buildings
(B) buildings of worship
(C) Art and architecture
(D) First true arches
Answer: (A)

56. Which of the following is incorrect concerning Mohenjodaro?
(A) It was a well planned city
(B) There was no drainage system
(C) Buildings were of varying sizes
(D) Bathrooms were important features of most houses
Answer: (B)

57. The source of the blue gem stone, Lapis-Lazuli, for the people of Harappan culture_________
(A) Gujarat
(B) Afghanistan
(C) Meharashtra
(D) Western U.P.
Answer: (B)

58. The Indus Valley houses were built of:
(A) bamboos
(B) bricks
(C) wood
(D) stone
Answer: (B)

59. The tools and weapons of Harappan civilization were mostly made of:
(A) stone only
(B) stone and copper
(C) copper, bronze and iron
(D) copper, tin and bronze
Answer: (D)

60. The script of Indus Valley Civilization was________
(A) Persian
(B) Dravidian
(C) Sanskrit
(D) Undeciphered
Answer: (D)

For More Questions: {1} {2} {3} {4} {5} {6} {7} {8}

Important GK Objective Questions with Answers on Indus Valley Civilization Section-5

41. To which age Harappan culture belongs?
(A) Bronze Age
(B) Stone Age
(C) Iron Age
(D) Golden Age
Answer: (A)

42. For which region in Harappan culture 'Meluha' was used?
(A) Indus Region
(B) Mesopotamia
(C) Banwali
(D) Rangpur
Answer: (A)

43. In which civilization UR was used for a place?
(A) Canaan
(B) Mesopotamia
(C) Akkad
(D) none of the above
Answer: (B)

44. For which region Dilman was used for a palace?
(A) Palatine Hill
(B) City of Hernan Cortes
(C) Island of Bahrain
(D) none of the above
Answer: (C)


45. From which places silver was imported to Indus cities?
(A) Bricks
(B) Tea
(C) Spices
(D) Food-grains and cotton
Answer: (D)

46. Silver were imported to Indus cities from which places?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Bahrin
(C) Maxico
(D) Afghanistan and Iran
Answer: (D)

47. From which places copper was imported?
(A) Rajesthan
(B) South India and Balochistan
(C) Maharashtra
(D) South India
Answer: (B)

48. From which place Lapiz-Lazuli was imported?
(A) Baluchistan
(B) Badakhshan
(C) Rajesthan
(D) Balochistan
Answer: (B)

49. From where Turquoise was imported to Indus valley?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Syria
(D) Turkey
Answer: (A)

50. How many Pictographs were found in Indus Valley Civilization?
(A) 250 to 600
(B) 350 to 400
(C) 250 to 400
(D) 450 to 800
Answer: (C)

For More Questions: {1} {2} {3} {4} {5} {6} {7} {8}

Important GK Objective Questions with Answers on Indus Valley Civilization Section-4

31. Where the Harappan city Chanhudaro was situated ?
(A) In Sindh now in Pakistan
(B) In Sindh now in Punjab
(C) Lothal and Rangpur
(D) Rakhigarhi
Answer: (A)

32. For what Chanhudaro was famous?
(A) Bread making shop
(B) Bead making shop
(C) Weapon making shop
(D) Statue making shop
Answer: (B)

33. When and by whom the Lothal was excavated?
(A) In 1957, by S. R. Rao and M. S. Vats
(B) In 1957, by S. R. Rao and R. D. Banerjee
(C) In 1857, by S. R. Rao and M. S. Vats
(D) In 1857, by S. R. Rao and R. D. Banerjee
Answer: (A)

34. In which of the Harappan city remains of a dockyard was found?
(A) Rakhigarhi
(B) Lothal
(C) Banwali
(D) Mohanjodaro
Answer: (B)


35. In which of the Harappan city rice husks were found?
(A) Lothal and Rangpur
(B) Banwali
(C) Mohanjodaro
(D) both B & C
Answer: (A)

36. In which of the Harappan city a measuring scale was found?
(A) Rakhigarhi
(B) Rangpur
(C) Banwali
(D) Lothal
Answer: (D)

37. On the bank of which river Kalibanga was situated?
(A) Sindhu
(B) Satluj
(C) Ghagar
(D) Saraswati
Answer: (C)

38. In which Harappan city evidence of bangles was found?
(A) Banwali
(B) Kalibanga
(C) Lothal
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)

39. Which materials were used in making buildings in Harappan culture?
(A) Terracotta
(B) clay
(C) Husk
(D) none of the above
Answer: (A)

40. How many seals have been found in Harappa Civilization?
(A) 1000 approx
(B) 4000 approx
(C) 5000 approx
(D) 2000 approx
Answer: (D)

For More Questions: {1} {2} {3} {4} {5} {6} {7} {8}

Important GK Objective Questions with Answers on Indus Valley Civilization Section-3

21. Which town in Indus Valley Civilization had no citadel?
(A) Dholavira
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Rakhigarhi
(D) Chanhudaro
Answer: (D)

22. Besides Chanhudaro which city of the Indus Valley Civilization was associated with bead-makers shops?
(A) Lothal
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Chanhudaro
(D) Rakhigarhi
Answer: (A)

23. Has any evidence of a worshiping place in Indus Valley Civilization been found or not?
(A) evidence of many worshiping place has been found
(B) No evidence of any worshiping place has been found
(C) evidence of few worshiping place has been found
(D) none of the above
Answer: (B)


24. Which was the most famous building in Harappa?
(A) Mukden Palace
(B) Temple of Poseidon
(C) The Granary
(D) none of the above
Answer: (C)

25. In which harappan city the H-cemetry of alien people was found?
(A) Harappa
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) both A & c
Answer: (A)

26. Which was the most famous building in Mohanjodaro?
(A) College of Priests
(B) The great bed room
(C) The great bath room
(D) none of the above
Answer: (C)

27. Which was the biggest building in Mohanjodaro?
(A) Assembly Hall
(B) Buddist Stupa
(C) The granary
(D) none of the above
Answer: (C)

28. In which Harappan city a piece of the cotton fabric was found?
(A) Mohanjodaro
(B) Mehrgarh
(C) Kalibangan
(D) Sahiwal
Answer: (A)

29. In which Harappan City a bronze dancing girl was found?
(A) Sahiwal
(B) Mohanjodaro
(C) Banwali
(D) Rangpur
Answer: (B)

30. In which year and by whom the Harappan city Chanhudaro was excavated?
(A) In 1930, by N. G. Majumdar
(B) In 1930, by M. G. Majumdar
(C) In 1931, by M. C. Majumdar
(D) In 1930, by M. D. Majumdar
Answer: (A)

For More Questions: {1} {2} {3} {4} {5} {6} {7} {8}

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